This has been covered on other threads but there never seems to be agreement. My friend who is Certified in Maryland and I have this debate that has been going on for about 6 months now and I need help. The debate is this: I say just because a comp is an REO does not mean it is Non-arms-length. It all depends on the situation. If it is priced competitively, had reasonable exposure, etc.....and meets the definition of an arms-length transaction then it is in fact arms-length. He thinks that because it is REO that automatically means it can NOT be arms-length. Can you guys and gals help us with this debate??????