I need opinions on this. Mr X is purchasing a house for 200K with 3.75% in seller paid concessions. Sally high heels wife of Mr. X, is representing her client, her husband as the selling agent and collecting her commission of 3%, according to the contract. The husband is the only person listed as a buyer and the contract clearly discloses that the husband's wife is the selling agent and that she is collecting 3% commission. This is where I need opinions: It's obvious why her name is not included in the contract as a buyer. Would any of you consider this a non-marketed oriented/non-arms length transaction? Does that commission represent anything besides a commission? Kickback cash back etc.?