Individual bought a vacant parcel in 2005. In Nov 2006, an appraisal was requested by the bank based on plans and specs for the development of the parcel. Original appraiser indicated owner occupied for occupancy status. Fast forward to 2011. Review appraiser completes retro drive by with similar 2006 date for litigation purposes and indicates vacant (remember the property hasn't been constructed yet). I know this seems ridiculous, but I'm combing the retro with a fine tooth comb to demonstrate a lack of consistency (my client wants his arse saved). I have the URAR Appraisal Institute book referencing occupancy status, but there's nothing mentioning this type of scenario. Thanks!