Just so you know..... I am a lawyer......(please don't leave!). I have to deal with an appraiser (No. 1) next week in court who did an appraisal arriving at $464,000. Subsequent appraisal for litigation purposes of the same property by the owner (who is the defendant) put the value at $300,000 (No. 2). They are calling appraiser No. 1 to say that the $464,000 value was for "refinancing" purposes and therefore was inherently (validly) inflated and No. 2 is a better indicator of value. (There is no mention of refinancing in No. 1's appraisal report). The appraisal dates are 9 months apart. Suffice it to say that the owner wants a lower value. Are there any standards which state that FMV may differ depending on the purpose of the appraisal? Is this proposed testimony valid? Thanks in advance to anyone who can provide some insight since this is not intuitively obvious to an "ousider."