rijman
Junior Member
- Joined
- Jan 20, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
I have heard rumors in chat rooms about lenders who will not allow time of sale adjustments, but I had never encountered this first hand until today. A condition came in on a report to eliminate the time of sale adjustments because the lender does not allow them.
I have documented value increases in the neighborhood with three sources including a paired sales data analysis. I never get conditions back about my time adjustments because they are always properly explained, supported and warranted.
I wrote a letter back to the lender explaining in depth the definition of market value, limiting conditions and appraiser's certification within the appraisal report, which must be complied with for the report to be USPAP compliant and adherent to FNMA/FHLMC guidelines. The appraiser can't ignore current market conditions just because the lender decides they won't allow time adjustments, which really is a conflict because I am sure the lender requires the appraisal to be in conformance with USPAP and FNMA/FHLMC guidelines.
This is really a form of bias, the lender wants to keep the value down by not recognizing increasing property values whereas the appraiser is required to appraise to market value without bias. Where does the lender get off telling the appraiser how to appraise with a guideline that does not even conform to investor guidelines.
Have you ever run across a lender who won't allow time of sale adjustments? If so, is there any further information you can add for future reference?
This is yet another case for my argument that the standard limiting conditions for federally related loans should be altered to redefine the definition of market to include we appraise to market value "within FNMA/FHLMC guidelines." There are too many examples I see in a rising market where FNMA/FHLMC and lender guidelines try to keep the appraiser from reaching market value as defined within the current limiting conditions accepted by FNMA/FHLMC. Remember, FNMA will not accept altered limiting conditions.
Do you really need three closed sales to support market value?
I have documented value increases in the neighborhood with three sources including a paired sales data analysis. I never get conditions back about my time adjustments because they are always properly explained, supported and warranted.
I wrote a letter back to the lender explaining in depth the definition of market value, limiting conditions and appraiser's certification within the appraisal report, which must be complied with for the report to be USPAP compliant and adherent to FNMA/FHLMC guidelines. The appraiser can't ignore current market conditions just because the lender decides they won't allow time adjustments, which really is a conflict because I am sure the lender requires the appraisal to be in conformance with USPAP and FNMA/FHLMC guidelines.
This is really a form of bias, the lender wants to keep the value down by not recognizing increasing property values whereas the appraiser is required to appraise to market value without bias. Where does the lender get off telling the appraiser how to appraise with a guideline that does not even conform to investor guidelines.
Have you ever run across a lender who won't allow time of sale adjustments? If so, is there any further information you can add for future reference?
This is yet another case for my argument that the standard limiting conditions for federally related loans should be altered to redefine the definition of market to include we appraise to market value "within FNMA/FHLMC guidelines." There are too many examples I see in a rising market where FNMA/FHLMC and lender guidelines try to keep the appraiser from reaching market value as defined within the current limiting conditions accepted by FNMA/FHLMC. Remember, FNMA will not accept altered limiting conditions.
Do you really need three closed sales to support market value?