Doug in NC
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 17, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- North Carolina
Working on a report that has about 14 months of inventory, so a forecasting adjustment was in order. My first 3 sales were on the market from 145 to 515 days. My fourth comp occurred in the past month and sold in only 35 days. I attribute this to proper pricing. I made forecasting adjustment to the 3 sales that took over 120 days to sell, and I know that we are expected to adjust all sales across the board equally, but it doesn't make sense to me to make a forecast adjustment to the 4th sale which occurred in only 35 days. Selling so quickly, it seems that its pricing has already been adjusted in its lower sale price.
I know I won't be able to get away with adjusting 3 comps and not the fourth (because of ERC guidelines), but can someone explain to me why it is necessary to adjust the lower sale that occurred well under typical permissible marketing time? If you ask me, the difference between adjusted comps 1-3 and adjusted sale 4 should be the extracted forecasting adjustment.
I know I won't be able to get away with adjusting 3 comps and not the fourth (because of ERC guidelines), but can someone explain to me why it is necessary to adjust the lower sale that occurred well under typical permissible marketing time? If you ask me, the difference between adjusted comps 1-3 and adjusted sale 4 should be the extracted forecasting adjustment.