OllieGarchy
Junior Member
- Joined
- Nov 22, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
Hello,
I searched the forums for this but couldn't find anything, so I'm hoping someone here can help.
A homeowner wants me to do an appraisal on his property. It's to re-instate his equity line of credit that was cut off by the lender when they did an AVM. To me, an equity line of credit, whether re-instated or new, is almost always a federally-related transaction. As such, shouldn't the lender be the one sending in the order?
I told the homeowner this and this is his reply:
"The appraisal is ordered in my name. I pay you and you issue the appraisal to me. I make a copy and send it to (the lender). We are not applying for a new loan or a refinance through (the lender). This appraisal is intended solely to dispute the valuation that was generated through the (the lender) software model. They look at it and use it to justify reinstating the loan. The “committee” reviews it, places it in a file for later on (see below) and then reinstates my line back up to 75% CLTV."
The homeowner states this is OK with the lender. What do you think?
And if I can do a "private" appraisal (not meant for mortgage purposes), yet it's going to end up with the lender, should I use the 1004?
Thanks for your help,
Tom
I searched the forums for this but couldn't find anything, so I'm hoping someone here can help.
A homeowner wants me to do an appraisal on his property. It's to re-instate his equity line of credit that was cut off by the lender when they did an AVM. To me, an equity line of credit, whether re-instated or new, is almost always a federally-related transaction. As such, shouldn't the lender be the one sending in the order?
I told the homeowner this and this is his reply:
"The appraisal is ordered in my name. I pay you and you issue the appraisal to me. I make a copy and send it to (the lender). We are not applying for a new loan or a refinance through (the lender). This appraisal is intended solely to dispute the valuation that was generated through the (the lender) software model. They look at it and use it to justify reinstating the loan. The “committee” reviews it, places it in a file for later on (see below) and then reinstates my line back up to 75% CLTV."
The homeowner states this is OK with the lender. What do you think?
And if I can do a "private" appraisal (not meant for mortgage purposes), yet it's going to end up with the lender, should I use the 1004?
Thanks for your help,
Tom
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