moplexus
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Jan 25, 2012
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Tennessee
Hello. This is my first time on the forum, so go easy on me.
I'm working on a multi-tenant office building with approximately 100,000 SF. I was planning on quickly wrapping up the Argus this afternoon and hit a snag. Contract rents in place have escalations, and I have concluded that 3% escalations are market oriented going forward. I typically consider that direct cap is less relevant on properties that have escalations and near-term lease expiration. Also, I typically like to see less than a 15% difference between my direct cap and DCF. I currently have a difference of 30%. I haven't completely finished checking for entry errors, but I'm growing more concerned about how to rationalize this or identify incorrect assumptions if I do not find essentially a typo. I can see why a property with escalations would result in a DCF value that's higher than direct cap. However, my DCF is currently 30% above the direct cap. My DCF value seems more reasonable and is well supported by sales. However, attributing such a difference to rent escalations seems unacceptable. My property does feature near term risk that has resulted in the use of a high cap rate. I have used a terminal rate 50 basis points above the going in rate and a discount rate of 100 points above the going in rate. I'm hoping to get your thoughts about similar experiences you have had, and any suggestions. Do you feel that there are simply just certain property types where direct cap is simply not as applicable? Thank you.
