CW,
Be very careful.
An old AI instructor of mine talkede about this at length in one of my CE courses years ago. His opinion, and I confirmed it with many others in the Institute at teh time (but do not have written documentation) is that the only legitimate way to calculate a time adjustment is to find comps that sold and then re-sold within defrineable periods at different prices where you KNOW the only thing that happend is the passage of time.
Brad-
I would question that being the "only legitimate way". It may be one of the best ways.
I would argue that one could make a reasonable case for market-trend adjustments based on an analysis of a larger set of data, also; especially if the selected comparables fall in line with the larger data when the adjustment that the trend indicates is applied.
If the older comps, once adjusted for typical value component differences, and then analyzed via a trend analysis, are adjusted to a value that is consistent with the most current comps, I'd say the results were proof enough that the trend analysis was sufficient given the intended use of a mortgage finance transaction assignment.
(I wouldn't want to make that same argument with litigation work; I'd use the trend analysis and then double-check it with sale "A"(then) vs. "A"(now) sale.)
There was a recent article in VIP regarding time adjustments. The point of that article (which I agree) was to be careful of the data set used to extrapolate a market-specific adjustment.
And, to take this one step further, let's use the example where all the recent comparable sales adjust to a $500k+/- level, but the current available comparable listings are at $470k+/-; there is no "A"(sold then) vs. "A"(listed now) to pair. Who wants to argue persuasively that it is not appropriate to consider a market time adjustment of -6% to reflect the current market environment because there are no matched set of sales?