Danny-
Some questions:
(1) How could an appraiser possibly comply with the other obligations in USPAP if the appraiser is identifying an unknown party as an intended user?
The purpose of identifying the intended user is to set the bar for report content. The report must be meaningful and not misleading to the intended users. If the appraiser does not know who the intended users are, how can an appraiser provide report content that is meaningful?
Cannot the intended user be identified by "type" such as " a lender"?
(2) The "intent" part of intended user is the appraiser's intent. The fact that someone intends to use a report does NOT make them an intended user, even if an appraiser knows of their intent.
We run into this almost daily in the residential appraisal world. Many buyers and sellers intend to use appraisal reports done for lenders to satisfy clauses in sales contracts. As appraisers, we know this, but that does not make the buyer/seller an intended user. They are only intended users if they are identified as such in the appraisal report.
In the assignment described, the appraiser is under no obligation to identify the lender as an intended user. A "Private Lender" could mean anything from the owner's uncle who has never made a loan in his life to someone with significant experience. Unless I knew the knowledge level of that private lender, I would NEVER name them as an intended user.
I understand your point but I wouldn't equate the example of a buyer/seller in a typical purchase transaction to be the same as a borrower/lender in a loan transaction. In the residential world we do run into borrower/lender relationships; and in the residential world for a mortgage finance transaction, the lender is always an intended user (no?).
However, here's the dilemma as I see it:
A client asks the appraiser for an appraisal. The appraiser asks what do you want it for? The client says
"I'm going to get a private money loan; the lender is asking for an appraisal so he can use it to decide how much of a loan to make."
Given the above and considering that the typical John Q. Public does not understand the nuances of
intended use or
intended user, do you think the appraiser can complete the assignment, given the intended use and the knowledge/wherewithal of the client, without:
A. Stating the private-money lender is an intended user, or
B. Informing the client that the private-money lender is not an intended user of the report (and explaining in plain language what that means).
In my opinion, I don't see how the appraiser can accept the assignment without completing A or B. Because (in my mind) if I don't do A or B how am I promoting the public good by providing something to a non-expert member of the general public that I know (or strongly suspect) conflicts with his reason for asking for the appraisal (having a lender rely upon it to make a lending decision)?
Now if he agrees and understands that "B" choice means that the lender cannot hold me responsible for the content of the report, that's fine.
But in the real world, don't you think the general public client wants the lender to be able to use and rely upon the report? :new_smile-l: