Sadie
Elite Member
- Joined
- Mar 20, 2008
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Oregon
Don't apologize for having an opinion.
It looks like I might hold the minority opinion on this one.
On the face of it and based on your descriptions it seems to me that placing sole reliance on the dated sales without making any attempt to support a decision to make no adjustments by analyzing more current/parallel sales data (even if less directly comparable) is an example of sheer laziness. The other property types might not be among the most similar sales but they probably bracket at least some of the subject's dominant attributes and might be considered by at least some participants in these markets as substitutes for your subject.
It's a simple process to compare the sales history of your subject's project against the sales histories of these other market segments to see what the historical relationships have been. How close or distant did the pricing from these competing segments of the market parallel each other in the past? If they were close in the past that relationship can be brought forward to apply to these more recent sales.
I think hiding behind the lack of recent direct comparables as a rationale for not analyzing the effects of the current market conditions on this market segment is a copout. And while it's true that the appraiser isn't supposed to be playing for your team or going to heroic lengths to rubber stamp a contract price, they also aren't supposed to be taking the lender's side. We're supposed to call balls and strikes over the plate.
I am no cheerleader for the current market conditions (I think a lot of people are taking a lot of unnecessary risks), and I wouldn't criticize another appraiser's judgement out of hand, so it's very unusual for me to side with a complainant in disputes like this. IF everything you're saying is as you're saying it then a lender blowing this off is not doing their job. Responding to a request to consider the current market conditions is not an example of appraiser-shopping.
For all I know, the appraiser's decision to not apply an upwards adjustment for market conditions may be entirely justified, but in the current market if they didn't show their work in the report to support that decision then they're not doing their job and they're not serving the legitimate interests of their own users. Expressing a conclusion isn't the same thing as supporting it, particularly when that conclusion is being challenged.
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With all that said, if you do submit a complaint you probably won't be getting a speedy resolution. Depending on the state it can take 6-12 months before they even look at the complaint in any detail and even then they may have a tough time meeting the burden of proof it would take to demonstrate a violation.
This must be difficult situation. Sometimes the only remedy is a new lender and therefore new appraiser. Which if you are this far into the process, that can be difficult, but not impossible. Or, this may or may not work, wait for the pending sales to close and ask for a new appraisal with a new effective date so the appraiser will give more weight to the more recent sale. However, if the pending sale closes for less than asking that would be a problem. It has been my experience that there are times that a bidding war results in an inflated price, kind of something to put in the back of your mind.Thank you Sadie, I appreciate the feedback.
I agree 100% that's it's tough to support an adjustment in an increasing market and that the data included in the 1004MC is insufficient on its own to prove appreciation. I guess where I'm struggling to follow (probably because I'm not an appraiser) is where the distinction between a credible indication and non-credible is. My assumption was that the same exact property sold six months apart for 8% more and a couple of other model matches sold around that same time period for 8-10% more is indicative of an increasing market, but maybe that's not enough. Agree that there are a handful of things that can drive price differentials, but I thought the sale-resale at 8% higher is textbook Case-Shiller-esque as the only differences are the passage of time and six months of depreciation if you want to attempt to be precise lol.
And even trickier is nailing down a specific rate. I can't pretend to know what the right rate is, but based on all of the data I've looked at, I have a hard time believing it's zero.
I sent over some broader market data similar to this, but the argument seems to be that increasing growth rates in aggregated data is spurious. Which could be true, so I stopped citing it as an indicator of growth on its own and turned to more precise data to support my ask.