J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
So the question for discussion (and I am keeping my opinion out of it for now) is this--what element of the definition above is being violated by an opined market value that is more reflective of the crazy bidding wars, than one that seems easily supportable by recently sold comparables? The only phrases that seem to be open for discussion might be undue stimulus (you have to be clear on this if you use it) or perhaps well informed/advised.
You are asking the wrong question.
It is not the definition that is being violated, it is the appraisal that is being violated. The appraisal is designed as a method to produce a specific result ( a OMV) and integral to the method is reliance on sold comps. THE END. When appraisers turn into deal advocates by putting the reliance instead on a pending or SC , they abandoned accepted standards of appraisal SOW./methodology
You are asking the wrong question.
It is not the definition that is being violated, it is the appraisal that is being violated. The appraisal is designed as a method to produce a specific result ( a OMV) and integral to the method is reliance on sold comps. THE END. When appraisers turn into deal advocates by putting the reliance instead on a pending or SC , they abandoned accepted standards of appraisal SOW./methodology

