PhysicalDepreciation
Junior Member
- Joined
- Jun 6, 2008
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Rhode Island
I'm doing a purchase on a house that is deemed "affordable housing". The buyer has to be under a certain income level AND the house can only sell as high as a certain number. There are zero other similar sales with these type of restrictions. The lender has advised to value it as of there were no restrictions on it. If I do it this way I'll have to value it using a hypothetical condition that these restrictions don't exist. The market value without these restrictions is going to be like a couple hundred thousand higher than the contract price (property max allowed price). Does this make sense to do it this way? There isn't really a "market value" for this since the sales price is already set. How would you guys attack this
Thanks
Thanks