FraudVictim
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Mar 17, 2025
- Professional Status
- General Public
- State
- Alabama
Hello. I need help. And the help could come purely through replies to my posts and questions, all the way up to a more pro active involvement in my case. As an American, a military veteran who served honorably, I have this feeling like I lost my rights somewhere along the way. There's a lot to this, and a lot of information, and I am not even certain where the best place to begin is, but I guess I will start by posting a formal complaint I wrote out that covers the first part. I have empirical evidence to buttress everything I write. I am reluctant to post the appraisal itself because of the private information contained on it. However, I can provide the appraisal for any appraiser to look at. The way I look at this, that the lender used a bad appraisal for an ineligible property makes the problem worse. But even if the appraisal had been flawless, the problem is the property was still ineligible. What's the purpose in my lender touting a good appraisal on an ineligible property? My argument has been that the lender underwrote an ineligible property ipso facto impugns the veracity of their own appraisal. And I've made clear that I blame the appraiser less than the lender.
This is only the first part to my problem. I have a second part, which I will post a bit later. And that involves a second appraisal I had done that I believe was not only done incorrectly, but I was misled into purchasing the appraisal. I will get to all that later. I am in a very small town and I don't know for certain, but it's possible the second appraiser knew the first one.
Please see the attached complaint I wrote out. It will take some time to upload any additional supporting documents and Part 2, because I am trying to make it a point to censor out names to avoid any problems. In place of the name of the lender, I just put LENDER.
Before I post more about Part 2, which is the second appraisal. I have a question for the appraisers in here.
Can and should an appraisal account for marketability issues, such as whether or not a property will have to go cash or is eligible for insurable loans? Is there a rule that says appraisers don't or can't adjust for such things? Say, for example, a comparable manufactured home is on its first set, eligible for FANNIE, FREDDIE, FHA loans, but the subject property had been moved and is on its second set, and has to go cash or possibly a private lender - and this is all known by the appraiser - is this something that appraisers can and should adjust for?
This is only the first part to my problem. I have a second part, which I will post a bit later. And that involves a second appraisal I had done that I believe was not only done incorrectly, but I was misled into purchasing the appraisal. I will get to all that later. I am in a very small town and I don't know for certain, but it's possible the second appraiser knew the first one.
Please see the attached complaint I wrote out. It will take some time to upload any additional supporting documents and Part 2, because I am trying to make it a point to censor out names to avoid any problems. In place of the name of the lender, I just put LENDER.
Before I post more about Part 2, which is the second appraisal. I have a question for the appraisers in here.
Can and should an appraisal account for marketability issues, such as whether or not a property will have to go cash or is eligible for insurable loans? Is there a rule that says appraisers don't or can't adjust for such things? Say, for example, a comparable manufactured home is on its first set, eligible for FANNIE, FREDDIE, FHA loans, but the subject property had been moved and is on its second set, and has to go cash or possibly a private lender - and this is all known by the appraiser - is this something that appraisers can and should adjust for?
Last edited:
