illegal

So, here's a new one for me and I thought that I'd ask for some other input to see what you all think... I'm working on an appraisal for a home on acreage, and the current and prior MLS listings show the age of the house being WILDLY different. One says 1989, the other says 1950. The County...

The heading describes the issue- When you discover a property being appraised is being used for openly illicit purposes, is it sufficient to just disclose? I am assuming I need to value it per the legal H/BU... Would anyone do more than disclose the illicit use? Just curious