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A Retroactive Signature

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Arrian Binnings

Freshman Member
Joined
Apr 12, 2005
Professional Status
Licensed Appraiser
State
Georgia
Hi all,

I have an urgent question about effective dates and signatures.

I have a lender that wants a copy of my old supervisor's license from an appraisal I did in February 2006. The supervisor's license has since expired, but at the time of appraisal, it was active and in good standing. I have tried to obtain my old supervisor's new license, but he is nowhere to be found and is unresponsive to emails and phone calls.

I explained to the lender that his license was good at the time of appraisal and that should suffice. No, they said, they want a current license. Now that I am fully licensed, I tried sending mine. No, they still want his current license.

Since my old supervisor is nowhere to be found, and I have my own license now, my question is this:

Is it permissible to go back to an appraisal you did as a trainee and now sign it with your current LICENSED status, of course leaving the dates of inspection and effective dates the same (back in February), but changing the date of signature to today's date? Does anyone know of any USPAP regs/rules/laws that would cause a problem with this? Seems to me I'd just be vouching for my own work as a trainee, and now that I'm licensed, this shouldn't be a problem. But something tells me to ask you all first...

Thanks in advance for the help!
 
I would suggest that the lender call the licensing division of the Department of State of your state. They would be able help out.

I would also make a point that harassing you is not going to get the license, and that if they wish to get the loan going they could handle it with a quick phone call.
 
Well, another option could be preparing a new assignment with a retrospective effective date and using the current date as the signature date?

TB
 
Arrian Binnings said:
Since my old supervisor is nowhere to be found, and I have my own license now, my question is this:

Is it permissible to go back to an appraisal you did as a trainee and now sign it with your current LICENSED status, of course leaving the dates of inspection and effective dates the same (back in February), but changing the date of signature to today's date? Does anyone know of any USPAP regs/rules/laws that would cause a problem with this? Seems to me I'd just be vouching for my own work as a trainee, and now that I'm licensed, this shouldn't be a problem. But something tells me to ask you all first...

Thanks in advance for the help!
Were you licensed back then or were you a trainee? What's the date of issue on your CURRENT license?

I swear. People will go to all kinds of attempts to bend the rules to fit a situation to avoid dealing with the problem at hand.
 
I bet they are now shopping that appraisal to someone else and they need all signatures to be current.

Tell them you are not your supervisor's keeper. If they want his license they should call him. Here is the last phone # I had for him...good luck. If you need a new appraisal on the property I would be happy to assist you for $zzz.

Why would they contact a subordinate, you have no power, authority, or right to hand out his license (current or expired) to anyone?
 
They would contact her if they were her client and not her supervisor's.

I would strongly advise against making any changes to the prior appraisal. Technically, a state board would have grounds to discipline a licensee who mispresented their license status in an appraisal report. If they want current licenses the appraiser could provide them with a new appraisal. Other than that the lender would have to decide how badly they wanted to use the original appraisal.
 
Otis Key said:
Were you licensed back then or were you a trainee? What's the date of issue on your CURRENT license?

I swear. People will go to all kinds of attempts to bend the rules to fit a situation to avoid dealing with the problem at hand.

Pipe down, Otis. I'm asking if there is a legitimate problem with it. I haven't "bent" anything and don't intend to. If there's a problem, I won't do it, plain and simple. But if it's ok, and others have been presented with the same problem, then I invite their feedback. What I didn't invite was a blanket statement regarding my ethics. Thanks anyway, though.
 
Arrian Binnings said:
Pipe down, Otis. I'm asking if there is a legitimate problem with it. I haven't "bent" anything and don't intend to. If there's a problem, I won't do it, plain and simple. But if it's ok, and others have been presented with the same problem, then I invite their feedback. What I didn't invite was a blanket statement regarding my ethics. Thanks anyway, though.

Arrian-

I think Otis was referring more to your client than to you asking the question. And, I agree with him; it seems your client is trying to fit a square-peg into a round-hole.

I do reviews for lenders; they will accept a report if the supervisor's (or even appraiser's) license has since expired, but was current as of the effective date of the appraisal. In California, OREA (our state regulator) will confirm that the appraisal is valid as of the effective date and the lender can accept it as-is.

If your client is going to a lender that has a specific underwriting guideline requiring that any appraisal they accept, the appraiser(s) who signed the report must be active at the time of the funding, that's the lender's quirky requirement (and, unnecessary). I suspect this is being requested by a UW (just doing his/her job), but can probably be waived by their supervisor if the lender really wants the deal.

You can always sign a report with a current "signature" date for your signature only. You cannot change anything on the report if it has another's signature, without that person's express (and, I'd get written) permission.
 
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