aalderman1
Sophomore Member
- Joined
- May 10, 2010
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- North Carolina
Hi all,
I'm appraising a nice bank branch with a fifteen year absolute net lease with twenty years worth of renewal options. A quick perusal of transactions of similar properties shows there are roughly two bank ground leases, and subsequent sale to an investor, for every improved lease/sale of a bank branch (in this market of course).
I've got enough sales and leases of improved properties so I don't need the ground leases, but this trend brings up several issues in my mind, for which I'd love to get some feedback.
1. The ground leases are trading at a lower cap rate 150 to 200 basis point, so it's clear investors see them as a safer investment. Should I discuss this in the report somewhere?
2. What are the main differences between an absolute net lease and a ground leases, since in the absolute net lease the property owner pays absolutely no expenses and the improvements revert to the property owner in both cases? Sub-question (perhaps, my real question): Why are the ground leases trading at such a significantly lower rate?
3. Would it be appropriate to discuss the bank ground leases as support for the improved sale/lease data?
Thanks in advanced for the responses.
I'm appraising a nice bank branch with a fifteen year absolute net lease with twenty years worth of renewal options. A quick perusal of transactions of similar properties shows there are roughly two bank ground leases, and subsequent sale to an investor, for every improved lease/sale of a bank branch (in this market of course).
I've got enough sales and leases of improved properties so I don't need the ground leases, but this trend brings up several issues in my mind, for which I'd love to get some feedback.
1. The ground leases are trading at a lower cap rate 150 to 200 basis point, so it's clear investors see them as a safer investment. Should I discuss this in the report somewhere?
2. What are the main differences between an absolute net lease and a ground leases, since in the absolute net lease the property owner pays absolutely no expenses and the improvements revert to the property owner in both cases? Sub-question (perhaps, my real question): Why are the ground leases trading at such a significantly lower rate?
3. Would it be appropriate to discuss the bank ground leases as support for the improved sale/lease data?
Thanks in advanced for the responses.