Michael Church
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Jan 25, 2006
- Professional Status
- Banking/Mortgage Industry
- State
- North Carolina
I work for a community bank in NC reviewing commercial and residential appraisals for my bank. I recently came across a commercial appraisal that made a small adjustment for differences in Time or Conditions of Sale for one particular comp that had a sale date that preceded the appraisal date by approx. 2 years. The subject property was a steel frame, metal shell, warehouse and in the subject's area I was fine with a comp that closed two years prior. However, when I read the appraisers explanation for the adjustment, I found a problem. He explained that CPI (Consumer Price Index) and other inflationary indexes for several previous years had been approx. 2.5% and that he considered CPI and other inflation indexes as a good standard for measuring appreciation for property values. I disagree due to the fact that properties will appreciate individually according to their property types and uses. I called the appraiser to ask about this issue and about the umpteen other blatant mathematical mistakes I found. His answer was that using CPI and inflationary indexes in this manner were acceptable means of deriving an adjustment for market conditions and that it was a typical standard for other appraisers. I have not seen this used in any other appriasals that I have seen. I would expect that the adjustment would have been made by pairing the sale of the dated sale with a previous sale of that same property to derive an adjustment for time or by pairing it with a comparable property with minimal differences to obtain the adjustment.
Is this CPI standard typical for time adjustments? Just seems very general and unscientific.
Is this CPI standard typical for time adjustments? Just seems very general and unscientific.