Distressed Conditions: Exposure

[ZZGAMAZZ]

I appraised as "Fair Market Value" because the Court instructions were only for an "As Is" Opinion of Value, which if approved by the court would be the lowest possible offer that the conservator could accept, which I presumed was obviously based upon the Court's desire to protect assets of the estate as much as possible.

Question please about a similar issue:
Am I correct thinking that the subject's estimated Market Exposure by definition will always be similar/identical to Market Exposure for the entire local market because the appraiser's Opinion of Value of the subject, even if being liquidated, would be less than the overall market exposure, consequently warranting the same exposure in terms of lenth of the property being marketed and leading up to a contract?