Lycabull
Junior Member
- Joined
- May 31, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Kansas
I heard something today that was new to me. While I was getting comp data from another appraiser, he was giving me a room count and said something like “6-3-2.1” When I asked him about the “2.1” part to make sure the .1 referred to a half bath, he said it did. I asked him why he listed half bathrooms that way and he said an instructor told him it was something Fannie wanted.
I see the reasoning behind this and also think it is a better way to list how many half baths a house has. However, I can also see it causing a lot of confusion to the readers of my reports. Most reports I see still refer to a half bath as a .5 in the room count.
If anyone could point me to anything Fannie has publicly stated in writing about doing it this way, it would be greatly appreciated.
I see the reasoning behind this and also think it is a better way to list how many half baths a house has. However, I can also see it causing a lot of confusion to the readers of my reports. Most reports I see still refer to a half bath as a .5 in the room count.
If anyone could point me to anything Fannie has publicly stated in writing about doing it this way, it would be greatly appreciated.
