NLCApprMgr
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Mar 5, 2014
- Professional Status
- Banking/Mortgage Industry
- State
- Ohio
I apologize in advance if I am asking a question that has been asked 1000 times before. I am looking at a 1004 for a single family residence. The appraiser checks Tenant in the Occupant section, and Fee Simple in the Property Rights Appraised section. If there is a tenant, and they and the owner are not related, one would assume that there is some form of an arrangement (formal or otherwise) that constitutes a lease. If there is a lease, then why would the appraiser not cite the property rights as Leased Fee Interest?
I do not have a Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal in front of me, so I am going to paraphrase here. Fee Simple Estate states that there are no encumbrances to ownership, limited only by four legal powers. A lease encumbers the property, because occupancy has been transferred to a tenant.
Now here is the tricky part, and I look to anyone to provide better evidence. I do not recall anything in the definition of a leased fee interest that includes the duration of the lease. As far as the definition goes, based on my recollection, if there is a lease for a day or an eon, a lease is a lease no matter how long.
As always, thanks for the help.
I do not have a Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal in front of me, so I am going to paraphrase here. Fee Simple Estate states that there are no encumbrances to ownership, limited only by four legal powers. A lease encumbers the property, because occupancy has been transferred to a tenant.
Now here is the tricky part, and I look to anyone to provide better evidence. I do not recall anything in the definition of a leased fee interest that includes the duration of the lease. As far as the definition goes, based on my recollection, if there is a lease for a day or an eon, a lease is a lease no matter how long.
As always, thanks for the help.