Hi All,
First, thanks in advance for taking these questions. Until I found this forum, I hadn't a clue how to go about asking.
--- 1st question ---
I've got a small investment property (three unit, purpose-built triplex) which I currently own outright. I'm trying to get a cash-out refinance loan but for various reasons outside the scope of this question, keep running into trouble with the details. As a result, I've had the property appraised four times in the course of three months. Each was by a different appraiser; all were ordered by lenders via AMCs.
This has been a frustrating process, in part because the values have come back as $90k, $110k, $58k, and $84k. The last of those is still "in play" and is the subject of my question.
Each of the first three appraisals uses a value of $15 per square foot of GBA to adjust the sales comps. This is on page 3 of form 72/1025. My building is larger than most three unit properties, hence these adjustments are in my favor.
The fourth appraisal uses a figure of $3 (three dollars) per square foot. In addition, some of his other adjustments (such as brick vs. frame) are significantly smaller (for example, $1000 versus $5000) compared to what others have done.
It seems to me that this is just plain wrong, not merely a difference of opinion. I don't know what factors went into determining the $15/foot value but all three of the first appraisers used it, so apparently it is accepted for the area or otherwise known to be valid. My bank appealed this via the AMC but it was left untouched.
If anyone can give me an idea of what happened here, and what strategy we might take to try and get it corrected, I would really appreciate the help. It seems that the AMCs have made it extremely difficult to argue any facet of an appraisal.
--- 2nd question ---
On a related note, the $58k appraisal uses a different method of calculating GBA than do any of the others. My building is on a corner. Street level on the "main"s street is actually the middle floor, and has entrances to the middle and upper apartments. The "side" street slopes down, such that the ground floor (lower) apartment is entered at street level from that side. That apartment occupies about half the floor area (completely above ground) while the other half of that floor is unfinished basement.
This particular ($58k) appraisal completely ignores the lower level for purposes of figuring GBA. This results in both the lower apartment and the basement being ignored. My understanding is that this is incorrect. If that is true, could someone point me toward a fannie/freddie or other document which specifies the method of figuring GBA?
Any help which you are able to provide is much appreciated. My back is somewhat against a wall here, and I could really use some solid data to use in trying to straighten things out.
Btw, I am located in in-town Atlanta, GA.
Thanks again,
Allen
First, thanks in advance for taking these questions. Until I found this forum, I hadn't a clue how to go about asking.
--- 1st question ---
I've got a small investment property (three unit, purpose-built triplex) which I currently own outright. I'm trying to get a cash-out refinance loan but for various reasons outside the scope of this question, keep running into trouble with the details. As a result, I've had the property appraised four times in the course of three months. Each was by a different appraiser; all were ordered by lenders via AMCs.
This has been a frustrating process, in part because the values have come back as $90k, $110k, $58k, and $84k. The last of those is still "in play" and is the subject of my question.
Each of the first three appraisals uses a value of $15 per square foot of GBA to adjust the sales comps. This is on page 3 of form 72/1025. My building is larger than most three unit properties, hence these adjustments are in my favor.
The fourth appraisal uses a figure of $3 (three dollars) per square foot. In addition, some of his other adjustments (such as brick vs. frame) are significantly smaller (for example, $1000 versus $5000) compared to what others have done.
It seems to me that this is just plain wrong, not merely a difference of opinion. I don't know what factors went into determining the $15/foot value but all three of the first appraisers used it, so apparently it is accepted for the area or otherwise known to be valid. My bank appealed this via the AMC but it was left untouched.
If anyone can give me an idea of what happened here, and what strategy we might take to try and get it corrected, I would really appreciate the help. It seems that the AMCs have made it extremely difficult to argue any facet of an appraisal.
--- 2nd question ---
On a related note, the $58k appraisal uses a different method of calculating GBA than do any of the others. My building is on a corner. Street level on the "main"s street is actually the middle floor, and has entrances to the middle and upper apartments. The "side" street slopes down, such that the ground floor (lower) apartment is entered at street level from that side. That apartment occupies about half the floor area (completely above ground) while the other half of that floor is unfinished basement.
This particular ($58k) appraisal completely ignores the lower level for purposes of figuring GBA. This results in both the lower apartment and the basement being ignored. My understanding is that this is incorrect. If that is true, could someone point me toward a fannie/freddie or other document which specifies the method of figuring GBA?
Any help which you are able to provide is much appreciated. My back is somewhat against a wall here, and I could really use some solid data to use in trying to straighten things out.
Btw, I am located in in-town Atlanta, GA.
Thanks again,
Allen