Phil Rice
Member
- Joined
- Apr 22, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Colorado
I have a technical USPAP question about the “intended user”. I am interested in feedback from certified USPAP instructors, or anyone that has an opinion.
Assume these facts: Appraiser is hired to do an FHA appraisal, for the purchase of a typical residential property. The contract has a clause which says: If the property does not appraise for at least $180,000, the buyer has an option to back out of the deal with no penalty.
First question: Assuming the appraisal report has an “intended user” section, does the appraiser have an obligation to identify as intended user(s):
1) Local mortgage broker/loan company that hired the appraiser, AND
2) HUD
Is HUD both a client and “intended user?, Intended user but not client? Or neither?
Second question: Does the appraiser have an obligation to identify the “buyer” as an “intended user”. USPAP consistently refers to the “clients intended use” – which would suggest that if someone is not the client, their “use” of the report does not qualify as an “intended use”. USPAP specifically says that just because someone is legally entitled to get a copy of the appraisal report does not necessarily make them an “intended user”.
However, USPAP Stmt-9 says: “The intended use of an appraiser’s reported appraisal is established by the client. The client’s intended use may encompass requirements of one or more other intended users”. I have never asked “HUD” how they feel about the buyer using the appraisal, and specifically about the buyer being an intended user, but when I think about HUD (in good faith), seems to me that the reason HUD insists on the VC inspection is to protect the home buyer – HUD stood up for the homebuyer and said that they are entitled to rely on the appraisal.
Furthermore, the contract says the buyer (not the lender) is entitled to use the appraised value to back out of the deal without penalty. Seems to me, this clause in the contract makes the buyer an “intended user” (even if the appraised value is over $180,000).
I know that appraisers dislike the idea of the home buyer being an “intended user”, but it seems to me, in this scenario, the homebuyer is an “intended user”. Do you agree or disagree?
Assume these facts: Appraiser is hired to do an FHA appraisal, for the purchase of a typical residential property. The contract has a clause which says: If the property does not appraise for at least $180,000, the buyer has an option to back out of the deal with no penalty.
First question: Assuming the appraisal report has an “intended user” section, does the appraiser have an obligation to identify as intended user(s):
1) Local mortgage broker/loan company that hired the appraiser, AND
2) HUD
Is HUD both a client and “intended user?, Intended user but not client? Or neither?
Second question: Does the appraiser have an obligation to identify the “buyer” as an “intended user”. USPAP consistently refers to the “clients intended use” – which would suggest that if someone is not the client, their “use” of the report does not qualify as an “intended use”. USPAP specifically says that just because someone is legally entitled to get a copy of the appraisal report does not necessarily make them an “intended user”.
However, USPAP Stmt-9 says: “The intended use of an appraiser’s reported appraisal is established by the client. The client’s intended use may encompass requirements of one or more other intended users”. I have never asked “HUD” how they feel about the buyer using the appraisal, and specifically about the buyer being an intended user, but when I think about HUD (in good faith), seems to me that the reason HUD insists on the VC inspection is to protect the home buyer – HUD stood up for the homebuyer and said that they are entitled to rely on the appraisal.
Furthermore, the contract says the buyer (not the lender) is entitled to use the appraised value to back out of the deal without penalty. Seems to me, this clause in the contract makes the buyer an “intended user” (even if the appraised value is over $180,000).
I know that appraisers dislike the idea of the home buyer being an “intended user”, but it seems to me, in this scenario, the homebuyer is an “intended user”. Do you agree or disagree?