I'm having discussions with a few co-workers on two elements of lease analysis. The assignment is to conclude a market rental rate for second generation office space. Typical leases in the market are NNN, 5 years, $25 TI allowance on second generation space or renewals, and 2-3% annual escalations. The client wants the conclusion of "market rent " to exclude TI. because the lease they execute will exclude it.
I'm arguing that if the comps in the grid have $25 TI and we model the subject as having $0 TI, we need to very clearly qualify that the resultant conclusion is 'market rent subject to no TI.' I tend to go full-on CYA, and would optimally like to footnote that to make sure the reader understands the market typically includes TI and I'd maybe even go so far as to state what the market rental rate would be under typical market TI terms. My co-workers are maintaining that the conclusion doesn't need to be qualified, that as long as we are modeling the lease terms, we are concluding a market rent (my head wants to explode).. My counter-argument is that, we are not concluding market rent if we are not modeling market terms.
The other issue we are knocking heads on is an adjustment for lease term. I maintain that a comp with a 10 year lease should be adjusted upward compared to the subject's/market's 5-year term. The longer lease is getting a lower rate, so to make it look like the subject/market, the comp has to be adjusted upward. My counterparts are saying no, the longer lease is superior so superior=subtract.
I'm not doing a good job at persuading anyone on either of these problem areas, so I'm at the point where I don't trust my own thinking anymore.
I'm arguing that if the comps in the grid have $25 TI and we model the subject as having $0 TI, we need to very clearly qualify that the resultant conclusion is 'market rent subject to no TI.' I tend to go full-on CYA, and would optimally like to footnote that to make sure the reader understands the market typically includes TI and I'd maybe even go so far as to state what the market rental rate would be under typical market TI terms. My co-workers are maintaining that the conclusion doesn't need to be qualified, that as long as we are modeling the lease terms, we are concluding a market rent (my head wants to explode).. My counter-argument is that, we are not concluding market rent if we are not modeling market terms.
The other issue we are knocking heads on is an adjustment for lease term. I maintain that a comp with a 10 year lease should be adjusted upward compared to the subject's/market's 5-year term. The longer lease is getting a lower rate, so to make it look like the subject/market, the comp has to be adjusted upward. My counterparts are saying no, the longer lease is superior so superior=subtract.
I'm not doing a good job at persuading anyone on either of these problem areas, so I'm at the point where I don't trust my own thinking anymore.