TexasHomeOwner
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Apr 11, 2013
- Professional Status
- General Public
- State
- Texas
A friend of mine is about to close on a new home in a subdivision which is being built out. The house plan that he chose is the first of its type built in the subdivision, so there are no identical (or nearly identical) comps. The appraisal came back ~$5100 less than the contract purchase price. He is now very concerned about the price and feels like the builder is gouging him. The builder agreed to reduce the price by $1600, but will not budge any more than that.
At first, my reaction was that either the appraisal was inaccurate, or the builder has set too high of a price. But after thinking about it some more, I am not sure either is true.
I can understand why the appraisal is important to the lender as he needs to ensure that the collateral for the loan is valuable enough to cover the full loan amount, plus any expenses the lender may have in selling the property, should he have to foreclose. So from the lender's perspective, they need to know the value of the property to the average buyer on the open market. In this case, the lender would be selling a "used" house (even if only a month old), rather than a brand new one.
It seems to me that a brand new house, built with the buyer's preferred selection of options, should command a higher price to that buyer than the appraised value. In other words, the first owner of the house may appropriately pay more than the appraised value for the benefit of having no wear and tear, and his own selection of build options. For this reason, I tend to believe that the appraised value may be fairly accurate, AND the buyer's contract price may be fair.
The counter point to this is if there are other very close comps in the neighborhood (used in the appraisal) that had a lower sales price to the first owners. If this were the case, then the comp sales prices would include the new-house premium. But in this case, at least we know that there are no other houses yet built with the same plan. I have not seen what comps were used in the appraisal.
Please let me know what you think!
Thanks!
At first, my reaction was that either the appraisal was inaccurate, or the builder has set too high of a price. But after thinking about it some more, I am not sure either is true.
I can understand why the appraisal is important to the lender as he needs to ensure that the collateral for the loan is valuable enough to cover the full loan amount, plus any expenses the lender may have in selling the property, should he have to foreclose. So from the lender's perspective, they need to know the value of the property to the average buyer on the open market. In this case, the lender would be selling a "used" house (even if only a month old), rather than a brand new one.
It seems to me that a brand new house, built with the buyer's preferred selection of options, should command a higher price to that buyer than the appraised value. In other words, the first owner of the house may appropriately pay more than the appraised value for the benefit of having no wear and tear, and his own selection of build options. For this reason, I tend to believe that the appraised value may be fairly accurate, AND the buyer's contract price may be fair.
The counter point to this is if there are other very close comps in the neighborhood (used in the appraisal) that had a lower sales price to the first owners. If this were the case, then the comp sales prices would include the new-house premium. But in this case, at least we know that there are no other houses yet built with the same plan. I have not seen what comps were used in the appraisal.
Please let me know what you think!
Thanks!