Lisa Archilla
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Oct 24, 2004
Hi Everyone,
I was taught that on a 1004 the occupancy status ( owner, tenant, or vacant) is the current (present) status at at the time of inspection not the intended status, even if the appraisal is for an investment purchase.
However, I did an appraisal for a PURCHASE and the mortgage broker called me and told me to change the status to TENANT occupied because the buyer is going to use it for INVESTMENT purposes. Therefore, from my understanding they wanted me to mark it as the INTENDED occupancy status and not the current which I was told was owner (seller occupied).
At the time of the inspection I spoke to seller (maybe it was really the tenant) who appeared to be living there with his entire family of 6.
The only other thing I can think of is this...
that the buyer, realtor and mortgage broker lied to me initially about the property being an owner occupancy purchase when it really was going to be for an investment. And that the mortgage broker did not want to admit to me that he lied. Moreover, that the people that were living in the house (at the time of inspection )are really the tenants and not the seller/owner (as I was told and introduced to when I got there)
So....
Is the occupancy status on a purchase, the intended status or the current status for owner, tenant or vacant????
Thanks everyone.
I was taught that on a 1004 the occupancy status ( owner, tenant, or vacant) is the current (present) status at at the time of inspection not the intended status, even if the appraisal is for an investment purchase.
However, I did an appraisal for a PURCHASE and the mortgage broker called me and told me to change the status to TENANT occupied because the buyer is going to use it for INVESTMENT purposes. Therefore, from my understanding they wanted me to mark it as the INTENDED occupancy status and not the current which I was told was owner (seller occupied).
At the time of the inspection I spoke to seller (maybe it was really the tenant) who appeared to be living there with his entire family of 6.
The only other thing I can think of is this...
that the buyer, realtor and mortgage broker lied to me initially about the property being an owner occupancy purchase when it really was going to be for an investment. And that the mortgage broker did not want to admit to me that he lied. Moreover, that the people that were living in the house (at the time of inspection )are really the tenants and not the seller/owner (as I was told and introduced to when I got there)
So....
Is the occupancy status on a purchase, the intended status or the current status for owner, tenant or vacant????
Thanks everyone.