PropTaxMan
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Feb 2, 2014
- Professional Status
- Gvmt Agency, FNMA, HUD, VA etc.
- State
- California
I am in training toward my Certified General license, and have 2 years previous experience doing property tax appraisals (specifically agricultural and commercial properties). I currently work in an institutional setting.
The lead appraiser on a project that I am working on has asked me to reclassify two comparable sales that I recently added to the database. The comparable sales are 96 acres and 269 acres respectively. The 96 acre piece sold for ~ $1,050 per acre and is unplatted. The 269 acre piece sold for ~$950 per acre and includes a developed gravel road and was partially platted at the time of the sale. Both pieces are classified as residential/rural residential by the Assessor's Office. The seller's realtor for the 269 acre piece specifically told me that the buyer(s) purchased it to develop into rural home sites, and looking at current records this seems legitimate as the entire piece is now platted. It seems reasonably clear, IMO, that these pieces were purchased with development in mind since there is a good deal of rural development happening in the general area.
The subject is ~450 acres of farmstead and dry range. The range is in very good condition, which is a reflection of the seller's management practices (obviously). I realize that we are not supposed to appraise management practices. The seller's realtor told us that several different buyers have made offers but were unable to secure financing.
My concern with changing the classification of the 2 comparable sales within our database is that it will look like even though we KNOW they were not purchased for range use, we are comparing apples to oranges and calling the orange an apple. I'm not sure what the reason might be for this, but we have discussed on two separate occasions that the current offer for the subject property maybe be quite a stretch for the buyer. I just don't want it to look like perhaps we're trying to expand our range on comparable sales in order to justify a higher price per acre on the range land.
The lead appraiser is quite knowledgeable and has many years of experience so far it be from me to second-guess them. I'm just wondering if I am over-thinking or being overly ethically sensitive (imagining an ethical quandry where none exists), or if I am correct to question this?
The lead appraiser on a project that I am working on has asked me to reclassify two comparable sales that I recently added to the database. The comparable sales are 96 acres and 269 acres respectively. The 96 acre piece sold for ~ $1,050 per acre and is unplatted. The 269 acre piece sold for ~$950 per acre and includes a developed gravel road and was partially platted at the time of the sale. Both pieces are classified as residential/rural residential by the Assessor's Office. The seller's realtor for the 269 acre piece specifically told me that the buyer(s) purchased it to develop into rural home sites, and looking at current records this seems legitimate as the entire piece is now platted. It seems reasonably clear, IMO, that these pieces were purchased with development in mind since there is a good deal of rural development happening in the general area.
The subject is ~450 acres of farmstead and dry range. The range is in very good condition, which is a reflection of the seller's management practices (obviously). I realize that we are not supposed to appraise management practices. The seller's realtor told us that several different buyers have made offers but were unable to secure financing.
My concern with changing the classification of the 2 comparable sales within our database is that it will look like even though we KNOW they were not purchased for range use, we are comparing apples to oranges and calling the orange an apple. I'm not sure what the reason might be for this, but we have discussed on two separate occasions that the current offer for the subject property maybe be quite a stretch for the buyer. I just don't want it to look like perhaps we're trying to expand our range on comparable sales in order to justify a higher price per acre on the range land.
The lead appraiser is quite knowledgeable and has many years of experience so far it be from me to second-guess them. I'm just wondering if I am over-thinking or being overly ethically sensitive (imagining an ethical quandry where none exists), or if I am correct to question this?