csullivan
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Mar 18, 2010
- Professional Status
- General Public
- State
- Massachusetts
Hello --- My name is Colleen Sullivan; I'm a real estate reporter for a newspaper in Massachusetts, Banker & Tradesman, that covers real estate, banking and insurance.
I'm posting in here because I was wondering about something and I think the only way to really find out what's what would be to talk to a whole bunch of appraisers at once. I've been reading up on the stuff that's going on with the banks and the foreclosures moritoriums (lately people have been raising questions about the RMBSs, as well) and came across a comment on Yves Smith's blog, Naked Capitalism, that made me prick up my ears (*mod cut the quote, so here's a paraphrase instead):
The commentator alleged that appraisers are supposed to take a look at the title of a property, and that since all owners and encumbrances are suppossed to be on record at the local registry of deeds, appraisers should through the course of their work have become aware of irregulaties with the title and been obliged to inform their clients. The commentator then further suggested that most appraisers don’t do this, partly because they may have been instructed by their client, the lender, to make the assumption that the title is good and marketable.
My question to y'all is, is that right? When you go back and examine the Registrar to evaluate a property, is is clear to you whether the assigments have been made properly? I mean, there's plently of reasons why you are called appraisers and not title insueres, and I would have thought that one of them was that you don't do title searches. So is this commentator off his nut? Or have you run into situations in your work where you were evaluating a property and saw that the bank that suppossedly owned the note wasn't anywhere on the title? Is that common? Rare? Not your concern?
Just to make it clear, I'm not at all sure there's anything to write about here, and I'm not planning on quoting anything you say here in the forum for publication. I'm just trying to find out if there's a story in this, or just another annonymous internet know-it-all blowing hot air. But I would very much appraciate any pointers or info you could give me on whether this is possibly an issue or not. If it is than I can start calling up all the Massachusetts appraisers I know in real life and pestring them about it.
Cheers,
Colleen Sullivan
*I guess I didn't realize you were so draconian; I considered a single internet comment on a post to fall well under the realm of fair use, and that's been the standard for any publication I've worked for. My apologies.
I'm posting in here because I was wondering about something and I think the only way to really find out what's what would be to talk to a whole bunch of appraisers at once. I've been reading up on the stuff that's going on with the banks and the foreclosures moritoriums (lately people have been raising questions about the RMBSs, as well) and came across a comment on Yves Smith's blog, Naked Capitalism, that made me prick up my ears (*mod cut the quote, so here's a paraphrase instead):
The commentator alleged that appraisers are supposed to take a look at the title of a property, and that since all owners and encumbrances are suppossed to be on record at the local registry of deeds, appraisers should through the course of their work have become aware of irregulaties with the title and been obliged to inform their clients. The commentator then further suggested that most appraisers don’t do this, partly because they may have been instructed by their client, the lender, to make the assumption that the title is good and marketable.
My question to y'all is, is that right? When you go back and examine the Registrar to evaluate a property, is is clear to you whether the assigments have been made properly? I mean, there's plently of reasons why you are called appraisers and not title insueres, and I would have thought that one of them was that you don't do title searches. So is this commentator off his nut? Or have you run into situations in your work where you were evaluating a property and saw that the bank that suppossedly owned the note wasn't anywhere on the title? Is that common? Rare? Not your concern?
Just to make it clear, I'm not at all sure there's anything to write about here, and I'm not planning on quoting anything you say here in the forum for publication. I'm just trying to find out if there's a story in this, or just another annonymous internet know-it-all blowing hot air. But I would very much appraciate any pointers or info you could give me on whether this is possibly an issue or not. If it is than I can start calling up all the Massachusetts appraisers I know in real life and pestring them about it.
Cheers,
Colleen Sullivan
*I guess I didn't realize you were so draconian; I considered a single internet comment on a post to fall well under the realm of fair use, and that's been the standard for any publication I've worked for. My apologies.
Last edited: