Texas Transient
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Mar 17, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- North Carolina
An appraiser in our office has a difficult assignment and has contacted the local NC appraisal board for answers. In the meantime, we were hoping someone out there may help us with some answers. The following is the email our appraiser sent to the board.....Thanks, WB
"We are valuing a Section 8 property for the protesting of property taxes in Morehead City, NC. A use restriction till year 2045 (the remaining useful life of the property) limiting the property use to renting to very-low, low, and moderate income tenants applies. No HUD mortgage. Existing mortgage appears at market rates. HAP contract in effect till 2011 at which time it will most likely be renewed. No tax credits left. Limited distribution of $51,000 per year. Cash available for distribution $0.00 in 2004, 2005, 2006 and first 4 months of 2007 when it sold. Cash available for distribution at 12/31/07 was $42,534. Property owner also owns the management company. They expensed just a little more than half their allowed management fee. Limited distributions are cumulative and have been on the books through three owners.
We plan to use only the income approach and capitalize the maximum limited distribution. Does this sound reasonable? We may get data for extracting a cap rate or may have to build one from market. Any suggestions? Does a bond rate for a Baa seem a similar level of risk?
Any help would be greatly appreciated, or a name".
"We are valuing a Section 8 property for the protesting of property taxes in Morehead City, NC. A use restriction till year 2045 (the remaining useful life of the property) limiting the property use to renting to very-low, low, and moderate income tenants applies. No HUD mortgage. Existing mortgage appears at market rates. HAP contract in effect till 2011 at which time it will most likely be renewed. No tax credits left. Limited distribution of $51,000 per year. Cash available for distribution $0.00 in 2004, 2005, 2006 and first 4 months of 2007 when it sold. Cash available for distribution at 12/31/07 was $42,534. Property owner also owns the management company. They expensed just a little more than half their allowed management fee. Limited distributions are cumulative and have been on the books through three owners.
We plan to use only the income approach and capitalize the maximum limited distribution. Does this sound reasonable? We may get data for extracting a cap rate or may have to build one from market. Any suggestions? Does a bond rate for a Baa seem a similar level of risk?
Any help would be greatly appreciated, or a name".