PhiloFarnsworth
Member
- Joined
- Nov 2, 2006
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Pennsylvania
Does anyone have any idea why the Fannie and most clients insists that lots under 1 acre be expressed in terms of square feet? And how many of you think that expressing a lot's size in square feet gives a better "feel" for the relative sizes among comparable sales than would a lot expressed as a decimal part of an acre.
I am sure the answer at this point is that it has always been done this way, but personally, it seems to me that it is far easier to judge the relative sizes when expressed as "0.32", "0.85", "0.16" vs. "13939 sf", 37026 sf, 6970 sf. Even less clear is when lots range above and below 1 acre so one has "40895 sf" and "1.04 acres", etc.
I am sure the answer at this point is that it has always been done this way, but personally, it seems to me that it is far easier to judge the relative sizes when expressed as "0.32", "0.85", "0.16" vs. "13939 sf", 37026 sf, 6970 sf. Even less clear is when lots range above and below 1 acre so one has "40895 sf" and "1.04 acres", etc.