Jeremy Parker
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Mar 4, 2004
- Professional Status
- Licensed Appraiser
- State
- Ohio
Hello,
First of all, I am a first time poster but long time reader and would like to thank all the posters for the great advice and suggestions. Anyway, I was hoping someone could help me out or point me in the right direction. OK, here's the scenario. The subject has an adjoining parcel located directly behind it, the driveway actually belongs to the adjoining property owner and it is the only access to the subject's garage. According to the homeowner there is no easment but they share the driveway based on a verbal agreement. In my opinion, this obviously needs to be addressed but where should I note this and why? Is it an adverse site condition? Is it a functional obsolesence? I struggle with this because while now this is a non-issue, the same may not be true if the property transferred.
Thanks again for any advice.
First of all, I am a first time poster but long time reader and would like to thank all the posters for the great advice and suggestions. Anyway, I was hoping someone could help me out or point me in the right direction. OK, here's the scenario. The subject has an adjoining parcel located directly behind it, the driveway actually belongs to the adjoining property owner and it is the only access to the subject's garage. According to the homeowner there is no easment but they share the driveway based on a verbal agreement. In my opinion, this obviously needs to be addressed but where should I note this and why? Is it an adverse site condition? Is it a functional obsolesence? I struggle with this because while now this is a non-issue, the same may not be true if the property transferred.
Thanks again for any advice.