I own a very unique property that I have been trying to get a refinance on. It is a small cottage on the base of a mountain with several special ‘additions’ to the property. I bought it for 42,000 four years ago, is presently assessed for 67,000 and was recently appraised for 92,000. We do not live in it all year round so can only borrow 80% of the appraised value.
When the lender received the appraisal, they rejected it, apparently based on their subjective opinion that the value was too high. They used the same appraisal company they always use and there was no indication that they felt the appraisal was unprofessional or fraudulent. They could not give a definitive answer as to what they based their decision on. Instead, they complained that there is not another property like mine (no kidding?!), and began to discount several aspects of the property as not adding to the value, until the value was so low it was not worth borrowing on. I waited for months while they were supposedly going through this process and ended up spending $350 for a worthless appraisal and getting no loan.
When we purchased the property, there was no problem getting an acceptable appraisal. Now that land values have risen significantly, asking prices for parcels have soared as sales have correspondingly diminished. In December, a nearby similar piece of property sold for $75,000 (though I am told the owner could have asked twice as much). I think they would find this comp acceptable, but now the other comps are too old (?) and I do not think there have been many sales in the area recently. How old is too old? Do there need to be a minimum of 3 comps?
I need to understand the following, if anyone feels so inclined as to enlighten me...Is it an acceptable practice for a lender to disregard an appraisal because they ‘feel’ it is too high, without a solid basis for making that determination? I do not believe the lender would have any clue as to the value of properties in that area– that is why experts are paid to determine that very thing. And my understanding is that adjustments are made between comps to equalize them so that uniqueness is not a big issue in determining value. Do I have a valid assertion that they should accept the appraisal, if it was done properly, because they have no expert knowledge upon which they base their rejection? How does one determine if it were not done properly?
Also, even if they agree to another appraisal, could I lose this money too if there are not enough comps to use? Is there any way to determine this before an appraisal is ordered? Does it ever happen that an appraisal simply can not be done on a property? There has to be some way to determine a value...is it reasonable and/or acceptable practice for a lender to use assessed value as a basis for a loan if there are no recent sales in the area? This process took many months and I am very discouraged and unsure of what direction to take. I am hoping there are some helpful appraisers out there who have encountered similar circumstances and may have some advice for me. I am anxious to hear your input!
When the lender received the appraisal, they rejected it, apparently based on their subjective opinion that the value was too high. They used the same appraisal company they always use and there was no indication that they felt the appraisal was unprofessional or fraudulent. They could not give a definitive answer as to what they based their decision on. Instead, they complained that there is not another property like mine (no kidding?!), and began to discount several aspects of the property as not adding to the value, until the value was so low it was not worth borrowing on. I waited for months while they were supposedly going through this process and ended up spending $350 for a worthless appraisal and getting no loan.
When we purchased the property, there was no problem getting an acceptable appraisal. Now that land values have risen significantly, asking prices for parcels have soared as sales have correspondingly diminished. In December, a nearby similar piece of property sold for $75,000 (though I am told the owner could have asked twice as much). I think they would find this comp acceptable, but now the other comps are too old (?) and I do not think there have been many sales in the area recently. How old is too old? Do there need to be a minimum of 3 comps?
I need to understand the following, if anyone feels so inclined as to enlighten me...Is it an acceptable practice for a lender to disregard an appraisal because they ‘feel’ it is too high, without a solid basis for making that determination? I do not believe the lender would have any clue as to the value of properties in that area– that is why experts are paid to determine that very thing. And my understanding is that adjustments are made between comps to equalize them so that uniqueness is not a big issue in determining value. Do I have a valid assertion that they should accept the appraisal, if it was done properly, because they have no expert knowledge upon which they base their rejection? How does one determine if it were not done properly?
Also, even if they agree to another appraisal, could I lose this money too if there are not enough comps to use? Is there any way to determine this before an appraisal is ordered? Does it ever happen that an appraisal simply can not be done on a property? There has to be some way to determine a value...is it reasonable and/or acceptable practice for a lender to use assessed value as a basis for a loan if there are no recent sales in the area? This process took many months and I am very discouraged and unsure of what direction to take. I am hoping there are some helpful appraisers out there who have encountered similar circumstances and may have some advice for me. I am anxious to hear your input!