PropertyEconomics
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- New Mexico
When doing a URAR report I am not appraising the house "as though" it were a fee simple interest. The report isn't asking me to identify the rights the borrower is in possession or will be obtaining with the sale.
My scope of work tells me to identify which rights I am appraising, either fee simple or leasehold, where the leasehold is a situation where I am appraising a house owned by the borrower that is on a leased lot. Further, my scope of work tells me not to render any opinion about title - so I don't.
This isn't a situation where I making a hypothetical, it is where I am stating what rights I am appraising, not what rights are owned. Those rights are intangible and exist no matter who the title is currently contructed.
So you are appraising rights which do not exist and you think thats not misleading?
What if they asked you to appraise the leased fee interest in a house that was owner occupied. Would you do that too because they requeseted it?
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