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Seller Financing adjustment

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Darrel Clark

Sophomore Member
Joined
Feb 15, 2007
Professional Status
Certified Residential Appraiser
State
Utah
How do you typically handle seller financing as far as adjusting for sales concessions? Assuming that the term and rate on the seller financing is similar to what could be obtained from conventional lenders, the buyer will not have to pay origination fee, appraisal, credit report, lender title insurance or other fees typical for financing. These often run about 3% of the loan amount.

In addition, a buyer with marginal credit may be able to purchase the home that he would not otherwise. So – is the contract price with seller financing then higher than what a typical buyer would pay? And if so, should there be a sales concession adjustment?
 
I don't know about your neck of the woods. I have bought a fair number of properties with Seller Financing and have sold some with seller financing. They all involved title insurance, they all involved appraisal, they all involved credit reports. The only fee I have saved on was the Loan Origination fee.

You need to dig deeper in to those sales. Very often, they are as good as any bank financed sale. Heck, lately they may be better when I see what banks are financing and who they are financing.

An owner financed sale can be good or not good. Remember you are dealing in Cash Equivalency. Ask lots of questions and listen careful. Very often those using owner financing (both buyer and seller) are some of the more astute players in the real estate field. They know how to cover their bases and most do not take short cuts such as ignoring credit reports, title insurance etc. And very often in my neck of the woods, there are additional fees such as attorneys etc.
 
GSE LOAN???? IF SO >>>>>>>


XI, 205: Definition of Market Value (11/01/05)
Our definition of market value is intended to ensure that appraisals reflect an opinion of market value after adjustments for any special or creative financing or sales concessions—such as seller contributions, interest rate buydowns, etc.—have been made. The appraiser must certify that he or she used the following definition of market value:

Market value is the most probable price that a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller, each acting prudently, knowledgeably and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby: (1) buyer and seller are typically motivated; (2) both parties are well informed or well advised, and each acting in what he or she considers his or her own best interest; (3) a reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market; (4) payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and (5) the price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale.

*Adjustments to the comparables must be made for special or creative financing or sales concessions. No adjustments are necessary for those costs that are normally paid by sellers as a result of tradition or law in a market area;
these costs are readily identifiable since the seller pays these costs in virtually all sales transactions.

Special or creative financing adjustments can be made to the comparable property by comparisons to financing terms offered by a third-party institutional lender that is not already involved in the property or transaction. Any adjustment should not be calculated on a mechanical dollar for dollar cost of the financing or concession but the dollar amount of any adjustment should approximate the market’s reaction to the financing or concessions based on the appraiser’s judgment.

The asterisked section of the definition provides consistent interpretation for the appraiser. Specifically, we want to emphasize that the phrases “...those costs that are normally paid by sellers as a result of tradition or law in a market area; these costs are readily identifiable since the seller pays these costs in virtually all sales transactions...” refer to all of the sellers in a specific market area.

No distinction is made between a specific group of sellers, builders, developers, or individuals in the resale market—they all are considered to be individual sellers in the market.

To illustrate: When a property seller is paying part of the purchaser’s settlement or closing costs—or is paying for an interest-rate buydown or other below-market financing—but virtually all of the other sellers in the market are not doing the same as a result of law or tradition, the appraiser would need to make an adjustment even if there are other groups of sellers—such as builders—who also are offering concessionary financing.

The appraiser can adjust a comparable property that has special or creative financing or sales concessions by comparing it to other properties that had financing terms offered by a third-party institutional lender—as long as that lender is not already involved in the subject property or transaction.

The appraiser should use his or her judgment in establishing the dollar amount for any adjustment to ensure that it approximates the market’s reaction to the financing or concession at the time of the sale.
 
I nominate Mike as "copy and paste" king for 2008.
 
This is a related subject. I once tried to measure it with raw market data but couldn't gather enough to be reliable. 'It' is the higher price.....very generally speaking.....that I have observed being paid by buyers of FSBOs.

I believe many buyers of FSBOs are NOT skilled at the process and actually believe that they are getting a better deal when a Realtor's commission isn't involved. Indeed, I suspect that some buyers of FSBOs limit their search for a residence to ONLY FSBOs, thus act without a complete knowledge of competition.

And end up paying too much.

And, of course, the appraisal "comes in" so, unless the transaction is ever reviewed by a knowledgeable party, the over-payment remains unknown to the buyer.
 
Thanks for all the feedback, but no one really answered the my question. I guess no one wants to stick their neck out with a try at it.
 
Thanks for all the feedback, but no one really answered the my question. I guess no one wants to stick their neck out with a try at it.


Post 2 and Post 3 did a pretty good job of providing an answer, IMO.
 
that I have observed being paid by buyers of FSBOs.
due to lack of financing thru common sources, owners usually provide second mortgage financing which IS riskier, therefore, they should get higher interest than the holder of the first mortgage. Therefore, the buyer is willing to pay that and thus pays more for the property and/or higher interest.

In the perfect world with perfect data we could easily calculate that on every sale. In the imperfect world of 72 hr. turnarounds...we usually don't see it. If Closing costs are typically split between sellers and buyers, then 50% of the cost of closing is the concession by the seller.
OTOH - the seller could be taking more risk with a second (junior) mortgage [if the first mortgage defaults he is forced to buy his property back or stand to lose it all]
Say, the typical loan has been identified as being 94% LTV at 6.5% 30 yr

Say, instead the owner financed property is bank mtg. 60% at 6.5% at 15 yr.; 40% at 8% Owner financed for 10 years. The down and dirty way is crude but with this info you can calculate a difference in the monthly payments and capitalize that into a estimate of the concession using a GRM...otherwise a more complex DCF might be more precise. This reduces the sales price to a CEV...cash equivalent Value. Applied to each comp, you have an adjustment.
 
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