hastalavista
Elite Member
- Joined
- May 16, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
re "as-is"
appraisal "as-is" - there is NO cost to cure because "as-is" IS "as-is".
Can someone kindly post the definition of Highest and Best Illegal Use from either the USPAP, a State's appraiser's Law, or a recognized appraisal industry text. Thanks in advance.
I'll cut to the chase for you, Mike.
From Appraising Residential Properties (4th ed., AI, p. 226):
legal permissibility
One of the four criteria the highest and best use of a property must meet; a property use that is either currently allowed or most probably allowable under zoning codes, building codes, environmental regulations, and other applicable laws and regulations that govern land use restrictions.
An illegal use would be one that isn't allowed. Commercial drive-through restaurant in most residential-zoned areas is a good example of an illegal use.
A non-permitted alteration that is either "currently allowed or most probably allowable under zoning codes, building codes..." etc., does not constitute an illegal use. If it "most probably" would be allowable under the zoning code & building codes, it meets the the legal use benchmark. One just needs to get the permit.
But you are probably more capable of finding the zoning requirement regarding covered parking (garages) requirements in Bakersfield than many appraisers who work in that area.
Does the SFR zoning require covered parking, or do "off street" spaces include open and enclosed parking spaces? If a garage is required, then the conversion (without a replacement) is a non-permitted use that wouldn't be allowable.
If a garage isn't required (just sufficient space on the site and off the street to park 2-cars), then the conversion is likely allowable; one just needs to get a permit.

:new_smile-l: