Hi all-
I'm a second generation carwash operator who's family company has now been in business for 34 years. We recently expanded from 1 to three locations a few years ago, and are now looking to acquire a 4th location. The 4th location is considerably higher volume, higher traffic area, etc..
Purchase price is 3 million. Historical revenue shows anywhere from 730-775k a year over the last 4 years. The appraiser used my projected income of 800k, and a cap rate of 10.5 to arrive at a going concern value of 2,850,000. It's a little lower than purchase price, and not thrilled about that, but understand how he arrived at his numbers. The sales comparison to arrive at an RE value on the other hand is where I take some serious issue. And unfortunately in this instance, the RE value is critical to me as this is what my lender is financing against, not financing against the going concern value.
If you have appraised a carwash then I'm sure you know how tough it is to find good comps. This carwash is on a busy intersection with 40k traffic count, doing very good revenue, and is humming along as a nice solid operation. This is not a duress sale, not a fire sale, or any of the above. None of the comps are even anywhere close to what this acquisition is. None of the 4 sales comps are over a million dollars, and none of them have a traffic count above 15k cars a day. So none of these locations that sold are anywhere near what this location is that we are trying to purchase.
There was recently a portfolio of high volume high income washes that sold about an hour north of this location. They sold earlier this year, a portfolio of 6 washes with traffic counts anywhere from 20-45k, with purchase prices anywhere from 2.4 to 6 million. It appeared as if a company called "mister carwash" was the purchaser of these properties, and I was very adamant that these washes be looked into as being used for sales comps as they are far and away the closest comps to the location I am trying acquire. The appraiser used them in the going concern valuation as comps to arrive at price per sq ft of somewhere between 400-640 per sq ft, and had the location I'm trying to acquire valued at 430 a sq ft and says that it is within the range of what this portfolio sold for. Obviously on the LOWER end.
However they were NOT used in the sales comps. I of course asked why, and the response I got was that all we have are the purchase prices of them, which includes goodwill, so he doesn't know how much is allocated to RE. He followed up and called what we believed to be the buyer of this portfolio of washes, mister carwash, and talked to the director of acquisitions, and asked him if there is a general % that they typically tend to allocate to RE when they do acquisitions. And the guy told him that they don't allocate anything to RE. He says because of this, he could not use them as comps.
After the RE value came back at a value too low for me to obtain financing, I did some more research and talked to the seller of this portfolio of washes, and he informed me that actually mister carwash was not the purchaser, another real estate company purchased them, and leases them to mister carwash. This is backed up by the property records online that state that the buyer is "national retail properties" So we now know that the information my appraiser got was obviously false, and wasn't even coming from the company who bought the portfolio of washes. I brought this to his attention and he said that it may change things for him. And he seemed willing to go back and explore using them as comps with probably some assumed RE values. However now he says that his client (my bank) is comfortable with it as is, and that he cannot make an revisions.
Do any of you appraisers have any thoughts on this? It seems to me that if an appraiser is made aware of new information that he was not aware of at the time of doing the appraisal, that it clearly needs to be revised. I would think he would have a duty as an appraiser, and in the interest of giving an accurate valuation to take into consideration new information that he was not aware of before. And also, I'm not sure if any of you would know how this works from a lender's perspective, but wouldn't this also be the case for a lender?
I'm a second generation carwash operator who's family company has now been in business for 34 years. We recently expanded from 1 to three locations a few years ago, and are now looking to acquire a 4th location. The 4th location is considerably higher volume, higher traffic area, etc..
Purchase price is 3 million. Historical revenue shows anywhere from 730-775k a year over the last 4 years. The appraiser used my projected income of 800k, and a cap rate of 10.5 to arrive at a going concern value of 2,850,000. It's a little lower than purchase price, and not thrilled about that, but understand how he arrived at his numbers. The sales comparison to arrive at an RE value on the other hand is where I take some serious issue. And unfortunately in this instance, the RE value is critical to me as this is what my lender is financing against, not financing against the going concern value.
If you have appraised a carwash then I'm sure you know how tough it is to find good comps. This carwash is on a busy intersection with 40k traffic count, doing very good revenue, and is humming along as a nice solid operation. This is not a duress sale, not a fire sale, or any of the above. None of the comps are even anywhere close to what this acquisition is. None of the 4 sales comps are over a million dollars, and none of them have a traffic count above 15k cars a day. So none of these locations that sold are anywhere near what this location is that we are trying to purchase.
There was recently a portfolio of high volume high income washes that sold about an hour north of this location. They sold earlier this year, a portfolio of 6 washes with traffic counts anywhere from 20-45k, with purchase prices anywhere from 2.4 to 6 million. It appeared as if a company called "mister carwash" was the purchaser of these properties, and I was very adamant that these washes be looked into as being used for sales comps as they are far and away the closest comps to the location I am trying acquire. The appraiser used them in the going concern valuation as comps to arrive at price per sq ft of somewhere between 400-640 per sq ft, and had the location I'm trying to acquire valued at 430 a sq ft and says that it is within the range of what this portfolio sold for. Obviously on the LOWER end.
However they were NOT used in the sales comps. I of course asked why, and the response I got was that all we have are the purchase prices of them, which includes goodwill, so he doesn't know how much is allocated to RE. He followed up and called what we believed to be the buyer of this portfolio of washes, mister carwash, and talked to the director of acquisitions, and asked him if there is a general % that they typically tend to allocate to RE when they do acquisitions. And the guy told him that they don't allocate anything to RE. He says because of this, he could not use them as comps.
After the RE value came back at a value too low for me to obtain financing, I did some more research and talked to the seller of this portfolio of washes, and he informed me that actually mister carwash was not the purchaser, another real estate company purchased them, and leases them to mister carwash. This is backed up by the property records online that state that the buyer is "national retail properties" So we now know that the information my appraiser got was obviously false, and wasn't even coming from the company who bought the portfolio of washes. I brought this to his attention and he said that it may change things for him. And he seemed willing to go back and explore using them as comps with probably some assumed RE values. However now he says that his client (my bank) is comfortable with it as is, and that he cannot make an revisions.
Do any of you appraisers have any thoughts on this? It seems to me that if an appraiser is made aware of new information that he was not aware of at the time of doing the appraisal, that it clearly needs to be revised. I would think he would have a duty as an appraiser, and in the interest of giving an accurate valuation to take into consideration new information that he was not aware of before. And also, I'm not sure if any of you would know how this works from a lender's perspective, but wouldn't this also be the case for a lender?