Russ Kitzberger
Senior Member
- Joined
- Jul 3, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Ohio
If the subject of the report is the fee simple interest, then the current lease needs to be analyzed and its reflection to market rent be summarized.The AI has been hammering the position that a lease less than 30 days, or some other short period of time, does not create a leased fee interest. 10 years ago I was taught, incorrectly, that if a lease was expired and month to month, or if the lease expired before the end of the estimated marketing and exposure time (usually 12 months) then there's not a leased fee interest. They are currently teaching that any consideration exchanged for the right of use as of the effective date results in a leased fee interest.
My particular situation involves a small lender that probably doesn't really understand fee simple vs leased fee and they didn't request one or other. This leaves it up to me to simply tell them if there's a leased fee interest in the subject and address it accordingly in the report. Which brings me back to my original question: does the AI stance that any exchange of consideration for the right of use result in a lease fee interest in a hotel? This is a technicality that doesn't impact the property's market value; but is there is a legal interest (leased fee) inherent in an operating hotel because it meets the AI's stance on what creates a leased fee interest? I'm just trying to figure out if it needs to be addressed in the report because there is technically a leased fee interest.
If the subject of the report is the leased fee interest, then the current lease needs to be analyzed, and the interim income reconciled relative to the market rent. If there is a chance the tenant could create issues for a potential purchaser as of the effective date, then that should be reconciled. Such as a tenant who has some sort of holdover provision, etc.
I think what AI is alluding to is that if there is a lease on any part of the realty, then a leased fee, or saleable value, or going concern should incorporate those provisions. A fee simple value, however, only should reflect the unencumbered property at market rate and term leases.
So, yes in your case you have a tenant who has a leasehold interest at the terms in the lease and 30 days at a time. The owner has a leased fee interest. If they said they wanted you to value the interest in place it is leased fee. But it is probably minor effect, because it can revert to fee simple in a short time with notice to the tenant to vacate. If they want you to value the interest that would be subservient to a mortgage, they should get a fee simple, as they should get a subordination agreement from the tenant before funding the loan.
That is a conversation for the client on what they intend to do, whether they will place a mortgage on the property and whether it is subservient to the lease.