Thank you all for the lively discussion. I appreciate getting an appraiser's perspective on my situation and whether you agree with my frustration or not, your points are taken all the same.
Humor me, if you will, and consider a hypothetical counter scenario to illustrate my point. You are reviewing an appraisal with a FMV of $120K, which matches the SC price of $120K. Your comps are the same model as the subject, but all closed a year ago, all at $100K. This indicates the appraiser adjusted the comps up 20% for market conditions. You dig into the 1004MC and the appraiser states that prices, inventory, and DOM have been stable over the past year, but due to a small data set and variety of product sold they are characterizing the market as increasing. Huh, that doesn’t make sense, since the grid shows prices, inventory and DOM are unchanged in the form but maybe there’s some off sheet analysis that I’m missing.
So you dig into some market data. The median price in the county is the same as it was a year ago. The market area median price is the same as it was a year ago. In the specific neighborhood, you scatterplot closed sales prices over the past year for homes and condos with the same # of beds, baths and roughly same SF. Flat as a board. DOM follows the same pattern.
You find three paired sales of substitutable products in the neighborhood (remember, no model matches to the subject have sold in the past year). One pair shows that model A sold for $90K a year ago, and another model A yesterday for $90K. Another pair shows that model B sold for $120K a year ago, and another model B yesterday for $120K. The third is the exact same property sold a year ago for $100K and again yesterday for $100K.
How credible do you find the appraisal with a FMV of $120K?