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Rights question

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the definition of market value tells us the answer
MARKET VALUE: a type of value, stated as an opinion, that presumes the transfer of a property (i.e., a right of ownership or a bundle of such rights), as of a certain date, under specific conditions set forth in the definition of the term identified by the appraiser as applicable in an appraisal.

It is a hypothetical sale, one that is presumed to have taken place on the effective date. The check boxes on the 1004 indicate what ownership rights are being appraised, not what rights are held by the current owner.
 
If you own a rental you still have fee simple title and the bank will lend on fee simple, not leased fee (not that they wouldn't be identical). Leasehold only has value if the lease is below market and long term. Otherwise it isn't worth a dime. The lender is taking your fee simple to the property. The fact it is subject to a lease
would only mean the lender will ask you to assign all rents to them usually.

I did quote that but I don't recall the source (was a simple google search.) Again the bank is getting a fee simple mortgage and the terms of the lease may have to be honored, but unless the lease is substantially under market AND long enough to really matter, the property fee simple = the property leased fee. There is no value to the leasehold.

"Although a leasehold estate is said to be an interest in real property, the leasehold itself is in fact personal property. The law recognizes three types of leasehold estates: the estate for years, the periodic tenancy, and the tenancy at will."​


Fee simple interest minus leased fee interest equals leasehold interest. If the resulting value is negative, the leasehold interest holds no value.​
 
To answer the OP's question, if someone owns a duplex and rents one unit out but lives in the other unit, and you are forced to choose between fee simple and leased fee, the answer should be fee simple.

We know that the owner has fee simple rights over at least one unit, we don't know all of the details regarding the other unit. Don't waste too much time on trick questions like this, choose the best answer and move on.
 
Excellent Read below
"This view is based on the premise that a fee simple leased property contains two sets of property rights components, one being the real property interest (the fee simple interest) and the other a personal property interest (the lease contract)."​
That's why the lender takes a fee simple interest. They only can use real property for a real estate loan and personal property is something they deal with in the consumer loan department.
 
One question I cannot seem to find a direct answer to for my studying to (retake) my exam - if someone owns a 2 unit property, let’s say a duplex, and lives in one side and rents the other side out — do they have leased fee interest or fee simple?
Retake of exam? Was this exam for your State Residential License or CG License? Either way my understanding of State Licensing Exam is multiple Choice; four possible answers. In NC two of the answers you can throw out the window. Now your down to two choices. Your odds are 50/50 of getting it right.

If this is for a CG license, all I can say is your in deep trouble.

If your using a Practice Test Booklet; post the Actual Question and all four Answers.

Here is a Clue in the form of a Question. Does it really matter if the actual deed recorded owner lives on one side and rents the other side? Wouldn't the answer be the same if the owner of the property leased both sides and the owner of the property lives somewhere else?

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A reversion in property law is a future interest that is retained by the grantor after the conveyance of an estate of a lesser quantum that he has (such as the owner of a fee simple granting a life estate or a leasehold estate.
 
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"Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. ... Many banks may take a generally prevailing view that if there is a lease, you must present the leased fee interest."

"Leased Fee Estate is the ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."

"The primary property rights in appraisals are Fee Simple Estate or Leased Fee Estate. Fee simple includes the “full bundle” of rights while leases convey partial property rights to tenants for their use and occupancy. Following are definitions currently in use by the valuation profession (Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal, 6th edition):
Fee Simple Estate – Absolute ownership unencumbered by any other interest or estate, subject only to the limitations imposed by the governmental powers of taxation, eminent domain, police power, and escheat.
Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."


In adddition, NO definition I've found includes the length of the lease in the definitions. Appraisers can massage, manipulate, and interpret however they want but unless someone can cite a reliable source backing up their claims, its all speculation and opinion, and wrong.


No one is disputing the fact that the value of the leased fee estate can be equal to the fee simple. That's not the question posed by the OP. Now if someone will quit running off down the valuation rabbit hole in an attempt to obscure the issue and address instead the actual definition....

The leased fee interest, which is typically used in the industry, is equivalent to the fee simple interest of a property that is leased to others. ... A lease contract does not remove any rights from the bundle of rights of the fee simple estate, but rather it is an addition to the fee simple estate.

You can't "add" to the bundle of Fee Simple rights; by definition FS already contains all of the rights.

The owner conveys part of the bundle of rights, specifically the right to occupy and use the property, when he leases it to others. The owner does NOT retain the entire bundle of rights. Terrel probably disagrees but I'd suggest finding a reliable source and doing some research.
 
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"Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. ... Many banks may take a generally prevailing view that if there is a lease, you must present the leased fee interest."

"Leased Fee Estate is the ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."

"The primary property rights in appraisals are Fee Simple Estate or Leased Fee Estate. Fee simple includes the “full bundle” of rights while leases convey partial property rights to tenants for their use and occupancy. Following are definitions currently in use by the valuation profession (Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal, 6th edition):
Fee Simple Estate – Absolute ownership unencumbered by any other interest or estate, subject only to the limitations imposed by the governmental powers of taxation, eminent domain, police power, and escheat.
Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."


In adddition, NO definition I've found includes the length of the lease in the definitions. Appraisers can massage, manipulate, and interpret however they want but unless someone can cite a reliable source backing up their claims, its all speculation and opinion, and wrong.


No one is disputing the fact that the value of the leased fee estate can be equal to the fee simple. That's not the question posed by the OP. Now if someone will quit running off down the valuation rabbit hole in an attempt to obscure the issue and address instead of the actual definition....



You can't "add" to the bundle of Fee Simple rights; by definition FS already contains all of the rights.

The owner conveys part of the bundle of rights, specifically the right to occupy and use the property, when he leases it to others. The owner does NOT retain the entire bundle of rights. Terrel probably disagrees but I'd suggest finding a reliable source and doing some research.

Based on this logic then the answer should be leased fee, since the owner does not retain the entire bundle of rights. I said fee simple earlier, but I'm changing my answer.
I may change it back, but for now I guess I'll go with leased fee.
 
"Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. ... Many banks may take a generally prevailing view that if there is a lease, you must present the leased fee interest."

"Leased Fee Estate is the ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."

"The primary property rights in appraisals are Fee Simple Estate or Leased Fee Estate. Fee simple includes the “full bundle” of rights while leases convey partial property rights to tenants for their use and occupancy. Following are definitions currently in use by the valuation profession (Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal, 6th edition):
Fee Simple Estate – Absolute ownership unencumbered by any other interest or estate, subject only to the limitations imposed by the governmental powers of taxation, eminent domain, police power, and escheat.
Leased Fee Estate – The ownership interest that the landlord or lessor maintains in a property under a lease with the rights of use and occupancy being conveyed or granted to a tenant or lessee. The ownership interest in a leased property."


In adddition, NO definition I've found includes the length of the lease in the definitions. Appraisers can massage, manipulate, and interpret however they want but unless someone can cite a reliable source backing up their claims, its all speculation and opinion, and wrong.


No one is disputing the fact that the value of the leased fee estate can be equal to the fee simple. That's not the question posed by the OP. Now if someone will quit running off down the valuation rabbit hole in an attempt to obscure the issue and address instead the actual definition....



You can't "add" to the bundle of Fee Simple rights; by definition FS already contains all of the rights.

The owner conveys part of the bundle of rights, specifically the right to occupy and use the property, when he leases it to others. The owner does NOT retain the entire bundle of rights. Terrel probably disagrees but I'd suggest finding a reliable source and doing some research.
Mark you did a whole lot of Quoting me without including the Sources I used. Actually those were not my words those were the words of the Sources I quoted.
 
I'm Reposting an Article link. You can read it at https://nerej.com/fee-simple-vs-leased-fee-in-valuation-by-steve-hurlbut

But I will post the Article below.

Fee simple vs leased fee in valuation - by Steve Hurlbut​

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Recently, I had a question from a regulator as to why we appraised the leased fee interest in a multi-family property when the property isn’t encumbered by any long term leases. My first thought was to write off the inquiry as to another misinformed regulator. But as I thought further about it I guess the question isn’t so misinformed and the answer isn’t so simple.

According to the Dictionary of Real Estate Appraisal, the definition of fee simple is: “Absolute ownership unencumbered by any other interest or estate, subject only to the limitations imposed by the government powers of taxation, eminent domain, police power, and escheat.”
The leased fee interest, which is typically used in the industry, is equivalent to the fee simple interest of a property that is leased to others. This view is based on the premise that a fee simple leased property contains two sets of property rights components, one being the real property interest (the fee simple interest) and the other a personal property interest (the lease contract).

When a leased property has a lease in place that is equal to the overall market rates of similar leased properties, the value of the leasehold interest in the property is zero. The net contributory value of the lease contract to the fee owner of the property is also zero, and this directly results in the market value of the leased fee interest to equal the market value of the fee simple interest. The full bundle of property rights held by an estate in real property, regardless whether the property is leased or owner occupied, can be identical because the full bundle is transacted from grantor to grantee through the execution of the real estate deed and the assignment of the personal property lease. It is only when current contract rents of the property being appraised are either below or above market rates that the traditional leased fee interest is being valued.

A lease contract does not remove any rights from the bundle of rights of the fee simple estate, but rather it is an addition to the fee simple estate. The bundle of rights is consistent with generally accepted appraisal practice where leased properties, whose contractual lease terms are at market levels, are said to have a value that is at “market,” or is numerically equivalent to the fee simple value of the property. This means that the same set of real property rights can exist in all conveyed properties regardless if they are leased or owner occupied, and if the purpose of the appraisal assignment is to value only the real estate the appraiser must simply remove the incremental value of the personal property component (the lease).

The Appraisal Institute recently held a property rights symposium to discuss differences of opinion relating to the valuation of fee simple estates. Long-standing valuation theory has held that the interests or rights in real estate are valued rather than the physical land and buildings themselves. Valuation standards require that the interests or rights be identified and reported in the valuation report. Appraisers have traditionally accomplished this task using terms such as fee simple, leased fee, or leasehold. When a property is leased and the value of a lease interest is sought, the valuation process will reflect the lease and account for any loss or benefit due to the rent being above or below market or loss due to the time and cost to lease vacant space. But when the assignment is to value the fee simple estate in property that is typically leased and sold as leased, the question arises as to whether it should be valued as though occupied or as though vacant.
This question is critical in eminent domain and property taxation where law or regulation generally requires the valuation of the fee simple estate, even if a lease exists. It is also an important question in mortgage lending when lease income is needed to repay the loan but there is risk of unexpected vacancy. In recent years, there have been numerous property tax appeal cases where the appropriate methodology for valuing the fee simple estate has been at issue; several states have adopted or proposed legislation that dictates methodology for assessment purposes.

If the definition is revised appraisers would need to determine, and the appraisals clearly state, the estate (fee simple, leasehold, or life estate) as well as the actual or assumed interests associated with the real estate that are reflected in the valuation. Depending on the question to be answered by the valuation (i.e., the problem to be solved) for a property that is leased, or would likely be leased, the valuation could be subject to the existing lease, subject to leases at market rates and terms, or as though vacant and available to be leased at market rates and terms. So the question wasn’t as easy to answer I thought. Whatever direction the appraisal world choses to go one thing is clear, the appraiser and client should be clear which interests should be valued. Stating property rights appraised as “Fee Simple interest of a property that is encumbered by a lease” may not be sufficient.

Steve Hurlbut is chief appraiser and vice president at Liberty Bank, Hartford, Conn.
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Mark you did a whole lot of Quoting me without including the Sources I used. Actually those were not my words those were the words of the Sources I quoted.

Suggest using quotation marks when quoting others and not using your own words.

Apologies for improper attribution.
 
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