glenn walker
Elite Member
- Joined
- Oct 11, 2006
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
Because their transferring the risk to the lenders. But not all waivers have full proof warrantys and unless the lender also does their own due dilgence the lender can be forced to do a Post Closing funding. That's why the owners of the lender we did reviews for didn't fund on a waiver if we ran our own data and comps that indicated a large potential value differences . The rural or ones with land or complex were elevated to a full interior exterior 1004 appraisal.We are told that the WAIVERS are low risk from the GSE viewpoint. Yet every loan carries some risk, and the taxpayers assume the risk for the collateral value of a WAIVER-backed loan. (When a loan has an appraisal, the lender is obligated to buy back if there was a collateral value issue.) The lender is relieved of that obligation with a WAIVER ( the lender is relieved of reps and warranties )
How nice for that lender. And how nice for that borrower that they are saved paying an appraisal fee. But why is the tax apyer picking up the tab for it by assuming the risk?
If a WAIVER risk is so low, and their AVMs that deliver the value range for the WAIVER so "accurate", why aren't the GSE's assuming the risk for them?
So it's s fallacy when apprasers say there is no risk by using a waiver. Also the larger the lender the less risk as it's a small percentage of what they fund and sell but for a small mortgage banker or small hay seed bank or credit union any buy back hurts.