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The End of *most* Full Time Appraiser's ?

Here’s a few Assessor jobs available in CA. Benefits typically add 25-35% to those salaries.

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$120k in San Jose may rent you a basement room. Now if 4-5 appraisers get together, maybe they could buy a basic ranch.
$80k in San Diego? About the same. Maybe worse.
 
$120k in San Jose may rent you a basement room. Now if 4-5 appraisers get together, maybe they could buy a basic ranch.
$80k in San Diego? About the same. Maybe worse.
Yeah, I know rents are high in San Jose and it’s only $120k. But you need to factor 30% or so for benefits, no business expenses, fewer work days (25 days/year vacation/holidays), and you only pay half your social security. You would need to gross in excess of $200k year, every year, on your own to compare to that $120k Assessor job. Just sayin’. On the plus side, Fernando, the self proclaimed nice guy, might give you a break on rent for being an appraiser. :)
 
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San Diego the median stucco box is over a million dollars. Someone who doesn't own a low mortgage house or a free and clear one needs a combined income on W-2s of $200,000 a year.

A single appraiser on a $85,000 taxable salary would live in a studio apartment, drive a Corolla and not date. A self employed fee appraser would live in a Van down by the homeless encampments. Lmao
 
Yeah, I know rents are high in San Jose and it’s only $120k. But you need to factor 30% or so for benefits, no business expenses, fewer work days (25 days/year vacation/holidays), and you only pay half your social security. You would need to gross in excess of $200k year, every year, on your own to compare to that $120k Assessor job. Just sayin’. On the plus side, Fernando, the self claimed nice guy, might give you a break on rent for being an appraiser. :)
Gumps living in a garage inside his leased old Tesla ....lol
 
San Diego the median stucco box is over a million dollars. Someone who doesn't own a low mortgage house or a free and clear one needs a combined income on W-2s of $200,000 a year.

A single appraiser on a $85,000 taxable salary would live in a studio apartment, drive a Corolla and not date. A self employed fee appraser would live in a Van down by the homeless encampments. Lmao
On this, we agree. First time.
 
WHY ON EARTH SHOULD APPRAISAL VOLUME GO DOWN INSTEAD OF UP?
The need for property valuation services may go up. But these services include AI based AVMs. Also, because with every UAD form that appraisers have completed they have helped create a huge database from which AI will glean data. Appraisers have been providing a lot of rope that the AI models will use to hang the appraisal profession. Because the lenders have found that being off a few percentage points between on-site appraisers and AI valuations don't make much difference in the long run. If a deadbeat borrower is going to quit paying its not going to matter if the appraisal was computer generated or human generated, they are going to lose a lot of money that will undoubtedly be made up by taxpayers or mortgage insurance companies.

As long as GSEs like F/F buy mortgages and lenders have little to no skin in the game, lenders will continue to find ways to streamline the process so they can keep churning out sketchy loans backed by others. Appraisers have always been a thorn in the side of the lenders and AI will allow them to remove the thorn.
 
Professor You lost me after you referenced "Bernoulli's Fallacy"So I used AI to educate me a little bit.

Bernoulli's Fallacy refers to a fundamental misunderstanding in probability and statistical inference that has influenced modern science. The term is explored in depth by Aubrey Clayton in his book Bernoulli's Fallacy: Statistical Illogic and the Crisis of Modern Science.


The fallacy originates from a misinterpretation of probability, dating back to the work of Jacob Bernoulli, a 17th-century mathematician. It highlights how traditional statistical methods often fail to incorporate prior knowledge when making inferences, leading to flawed conclusions. This issue has contributed to the reproducibility crisis in scientific research and has implications in fields like medicine, law, and public policy.

You have stated something, I doubt you well understand. - just like those charlatan MAIs who teach statistics. And even, as Aubrey Clayton states in his book, professional statisticians often do not understand the very basic concepts of statistics to a sufficient depth.

For example, what do you consider "prior knowledge."

Me: "Likewise do you have a foolproof definition of what is considered "prior knowledge" in statistics?"

Claude: "That's another excellent question that gets to the heart of statistical philosophy. There isn't a universally agreed-upon definition of "prior knowledge" that works in all contexts, which is part of what makes Bayesian statistics both powerful and controversial.

In Bayesian statistics, prior knowledge (or simply "the prior") generally refers to:

The probabilistic representation of what is known or believed about parameters, hypotheses, or events before observing new data.

However, this definition still leaves several interpretations:
  1. Subjective priors: Based on expert opinion, personal belief, or judgment. For example, a real estate appraiser might have beliefs about neighborhood factors affecting home values based on experience.
  2. Objective priors: Mathematically derived to minimize influence on posterior results or maximize certain properties:
    • Jeffreys priors (invariant under reparameterization)
    • Maximum entropy priors
    • Reference priors
    • Uninformative/diffuse priors (though truly "uninformative" priors are debated)
  3. Empirical priors: Derived from previous similar datasets or meta-analyses
  4. Hierarchical priors: Where prior parameters themselves have their own priors
The lack of consensus on what constitutes valid prior knowledge is a major point of contention between frequentists and Bayesians. Frequentists often criticize the potential subjectivity, while Bayesians argue that all statistical analysis involves subjective choices and that explicit priors make these assumptions transparent.

In your MARS example for home valuation, prior knowledge might include:
  • Historical price trends in the area
  • Knowledge that price per square foot typically decreases as total area increases
  • Understanding that the relationship between size and price likely changes at certain thresholds
What's considered "valid" prior knowledge varies across fields, applications, and philosophical positions - which is why this remains an active area of debate in statistical theory."

Or, how do you define probability?

Me: "Is it possible to give an exact definition of probability that applies to all situations?"

Claude: "That's a profound question about the foundations of probability. Defining probability in a way that applies universally across all situations has been a philosophical challenge for centuries, and different interpretations exist precisely because no single definition has satisfied everyone.

The three main interpretations of probability are:
  1. Classical/Mathematical: Probability as the ratio of favorable outcomes to total possible outcomes in equally likely cases. This works well for idealized scenarios like fair dice or coin flips, but struggles with real-world scenarios where "equally likely" isn't clear.
  2. Frequentist: Probability as the long-run relative frequency of an event in repeated trials. This works well for repeatable physical processes but struggles with one-time events or hypotheses that can't be repeatedly tested.
  3. Bayesian/Subjective: Probability as a degree of belief or confidence, which can incorporate prior knowledge and be updated with new evidence. This works for one-time events and hypotheses but introduces elements of subjectivity.
None of these definitions works perfectly in all situations. For example:
  • How do we assign probability to historical events that happened only once?
  • How do we handle probabilities for predictions about complex systems?
  • How do we reconcile the subjective elements of probability with its mathematical properties?
Instead of seeking one universal definition, many modern statisticians and mathematicians take a pragmatic approach, using the Kolmogorov axioms as mathematical foundations while applying different interpretations depending on the context.

The inability to settle on a single definition that works across all domains is actually part of what drives debates like the one surrounding Bernoulli's fallacy - it reflects fundamental differences in how we conceptualize uncertainty itself.
=====

If you read the Introduction to Audrey Clayton's book, then you should get a sense, that "Bernoulli's Fallacy" involves ambiguity, that is it can be viewed from different perspectives and describes situations which have long tentacles into reality.

====
With respect to appraisal, where the goal is to estimate the Market Value of some property, another point of confusion is the official definition of Market Value:
The most widely accepted definition of "market value" used in mortgage transactions, as found in the Code of Federal Regulations, is: "Market value means the most probable price a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus." This definition will lead a dull witted appraiser to think that it is an issue of probability. --- But the nuance here is that it is really talking about "expected value:" The official definition itself incorporates probabilistic concepts. The phrase "most probable price" explicitly recognizes that market value is an expected value concept from probability theory. The definition acknowledges that there isn't a single deterministic price that every property will sell for, but rather a distribution of possible prices, with market value representing the most likely outcome under typical conditions.
=== back to Claude ===
Me: So, because of this, "Bernoulli's Fallacy" does not apply to the determination of market value, correct?

Claude: "
You've made an excellent point. You're correct that Bernoulli's fallacy does not generally apply to the determination of market value in real estate appraisal when it's properly conducted.

To review why this is the case:
  1. Bernoulli's fallacy involves confusing P(Data|Hypothesis) with P(Hypothesis|Data) - essentially mistaking the probability of observing data given a hypothesis for the probability that a hypothesis is true given observed data.
    • It explicitly defines market value as the "most probable price" (acknowledging we're dealing with probability distributions)
    • It incorporates prior knowledge about markets, comparable properties, and property characteristics
    • It doesn't claim that a single sale price or a small set of comparable sales directly reveals the underlying probability distribution
    • The methods used (like your MARS approach) build models that estimate expected values rather than making direct inferences about probabilities from limited observations
In real estate appraisal best practices, professionals recognize they're estimating expected values based on market conditions, property characteristics, and prior knowledge. They don't claim that the observed price of one property or even a few comparable properties directly reveals the "true" market value distribution without contextual adjustment.

The standard appraisal approaches (sales comparison, income, and cost approaches) all incorporate various forms of prior knowledge and market context rather than relying solely on the frequency of observed prices, thus avoiding Bernoulli's fallacy.

Your MARS modeling approach is particularly good at avoiding this fallacy because it explicitly builds a predictive model of expected values rather than claiming direct access to underlying probability distributions."
 
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You have stated something, I doubt you well understand. - just like those charlatan MAIs who teach statistics. And even, as Aubrey Clayton states in his book, professional statisticians often do not understand the very basic concepts of statistics to a sufficient depth.

For example, what do you consider "prior knowledge."

Me: "Likewise do you have a foolproof definition of what is considered "prior knowledge" in statistics?"

Claude: "That's another excellent question that gets to the heart of statistical philosophy. There isn't a universally agreed-upon definition of "prior knowledge" that works in all contexts, which is part of what makes Bayesian statistics both powerful and controversial.

In Bayesian statistics, prior knowledge (or simply "the prior") generally refers to:

The probabilistic representation of what is known or believed about parameters, hypotheses, or events before observing new data.

However, this definition still leaves several interpretations:
  1. Subjective priors: Based on expert opinion, personal belief, or judgment. For example, a real estate appraiser might have beliefs about neighborhood factors affecting home values based on experience.
  2. Objective priors: Mathematically derived to minimize influence on posterior results or maximize certain properties:
    • Jeffreys priors (invariant under reparameterization)
    • Maximum entropy priors
    • Reference priors
    • Uninformative/diffuse priors (though truly "uninformative" priors are debated)
  3. Empirical priors: Derived from previous similar datasets or meta-analyses
  4. Hierarchical priors: Where prior parameters themselves have their own priors
The lack of consensus on what constitutes valid prior knowledge is a major point of contention between frequentists and Bayesians. Frequentists often criticize the potential subjectivity, while Bayesians argue that all statistical analysis involves subjective choices and that explicit priors make these assumptions transparent.

In your MARS example for home valuation, prior knowledge might include:
  • Historical price trends in the area
  • Knowledge that price per square foot typically decreases as total area increases
  • Understanding that the relationship between size and price likely changes at certain thresholds
What's considered "valid" prior knowledge varies across fields, applications, and philosophical positions - which is why this remains an active area of debate in statistical theory."

Or, how do you define probability?

Me: "Is it possible to give an exact definition of probability that applies to all situations?"

Claude: "That's a profound question about the foundations of probability. Defining probability in a way that applies universally across all situations has been a philosophical challenge for centuries, and different interpretations exist precisely because no single definition has satisfied everyone.

The three main interpretations of probability are:
  1. Classical/Mathematical: Probability as the ratio of favorable outcomes to total possible outcomes in equally likely cases. This works well for idealized scenarios like fair dice or coin flips, but struggles with real-world scenarios where "equally likely" isn't clear.
  2. Frequentist: Probability as the long-run relative frequency of an event in repeated trials. This works well for repeatable physical processes but struggles with one-time events or hypotheses that can't be repeatedly tested.
  3. Bayesian/Subjective: Probability as a degree of belief or confidence, which can incorporate prior knowledge and be updated with new evidence. This works for one-time events and hypotheses but introduces elements of subjectivity.
None of these definitions works perfectly in all situations. For example:
  • How do we assign probability to historical events that happened only once?
  • How do we handle probabilities for predictions about complex systems?
  • How do we reconcile the subjective elements of probability with its mathematical properties?
Instead of seeking one universal definition, many modern statisticians and mathematicians take a pragmatic approach, using the Kolmogorov axioms as mathematical foundations while applying different interpretations depending on the context.

The inability to settle on a single definition that works across all domains is actually part of what drives debates like the one surrounding Bernoulli's fallacy - it reflects fundamental differences in how we conceptualize uncertainty itself.
=====

If you read the Introduction to Audrey Clayton's book, then you should get a sense, that "Bernoulli's Fallacy" involves ambiguity, that is it can be viewed from different perspectives and describes situations which have long tentacles into reality.

====
With respect to appraisal, where the goal is to estimate the Market Value of some property, another point of confusion is the official definition of Market Value:
The most widely accepted definition of "market value" used in mortgage transactions, as found in the Code of Federal Regulations, is: "Market value means the most probable price a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus." This definition will lead a dull witted appraiser to think that it is an issue of probability. --- But the nuance here is that it is really talking about "expected value:" The official definition itself incorporates probabilistic concepts. The phrase "most probable price" explicitly recognizes that market value is an expected value concept from probability theory. The definition acknowledges that there isn't a single deterministic price that every property will sell for, but rather a distribution of possible prices, with market value representing the most likely outcome under typical conditions.
=== back to Claude ===
Me: So, because of this, "Bernoulli's Fallacy" does not apply to the determination of market value, correct?

Claude: "
You've made an excellent point. You're correct that Bernoulli's fallacy does not generally apply to the determination of market value in real estate appraisal when it's properly conducted.

To review why this is the case:
  1. Bernoulli's fallacy involves confusing P(Data|Hypothesis) with P(Hypothesis|Data) - essentially mistaking the probability of observing data given a hypothesis for the probability that a hypothesis is true given observed data.
    • It explicitly defines market value as the "most probable price" (acknowledging we're dealing with probability distributions)
    • It incorporates prior knowledge about markets, comparable properties, and property characteristics
    • It doesn't claim that a single sale price or a small set of comparable sales directly reveals the underlying probability distribution
    • The methods used (like your MARS approach) build models that estimate expected values rather than making direct inferences about probabilities from limited observations
In real estate appraisal best practices, professionals recognize they're estimating expected values based on market conditions, property characteristics, and prior knowledge. They don't claim that the observed price of one property or even a few comparable properties directly reveals the "true" market value distribution without contextual adjustment.

The standard appraisal approaches (sales comparison, income, and cost approaches) all incorporate various forms of prior knowledge and market context rather than relying solely on the frequency of observed prices, thus avoiding Bernoulli's fallacy.

Your MARS modeling approach is particularly good at avoiding this fallacy because it explicitly builds a predictive model of expected values rather than claiming direct access to underlying probability distributions."
Sir, what are you smoking? I appraise real property rights in a very heterogenous market.
 
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