- Joined
- May 2, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Arkansas
Trying to decipher Richard Hagar’s article in Working Real Estate (Fall 2025) – I have a paper copy but I think you can read on line. The title is “Highest and Best- and the Highest Value”. He discusses a few of the basics of HBU but his main theme (based on a simple example of a SFR on a site zoned for Multi-family) is that a property with a different zoning may, in fact, not meet the HBU test of “most profitable” even when the existing dwelling contributes value to the value “as if vacant”.
I am not disputing his example, but I have questions. His example is a $300,000 lot with a house worth $50,000. The savvy buyer buys anyway, tears down the perfectly serviceable house and builds a fourplex whose rents will far exceed the rents of that old SFR. That's the 'most profitable' use. Yes, that happens but how does the appraiser anticipate that will honestly happen? The buyer might still live there anyway, or remodel for a more modern look or even an addition. Who among us hasn’t encountered homes with a beaucoup of functional obsolescences, but happily lived in by the owners?
The rub, as Shakespeare might say, is how can we as appraisers anticipate the minds of a future buyer? What if the house is an interim utility until the buyer thinks it has 'ripened' into its HBU? What if merely holding waiting to flip in a better market? I mean anyone here savvy enough to buy almost anything in 2010-11 could have doubled, tripled or more their investment by doing nothing but waiting 10 years.
Comps tell us what similar property might bring but can we really be expected to anticipate what will be done post-closing unless the buyer says so? Next, is it not true that even if zoning is SFR, one could argue that tearing down a house of any age and replacing with a new structure would be a higher and better use of a site? In other words, the moment a property depreciates by one dollar, i.e- it is worth less than if the “ideal” (new) improvement would replace it. You might have to think on that one.
Next, zoning itself. I work some small towns with no zoning. I work some with only vague zoning – R is residential, C is commercial, I – industrial and not much else. But most will have R1 for SFR, R2 might be 2-4 units, or they might call it RM2 and apartments as RM3. In fact, sometimes the zoning classifications can be numerous. RE – executive estates over 2 acres; R1a- SFR on lots less than 5,000 SF; R1b- SFR with lots between 5,000 – 15,000 SF; R1c- lots between 15,000 SF and 2 acres. And, of course, lots of towns are now mandated to allow so many manufactured homes in the city and allowing (or requiring) cities to accommodate ADUs. And some towns have such a myriad of “zones” it finally became so overwhelming that they are revamping the zoning classifications. How does the appraiser anticipate that?
The map below is all residential. How many classifications do you see?

And “allowable” uses might say that a church or daycare can exist on R1b and R1c but not on RE lots or R1a lots. Or, worse, you can ask for variances and likely to get them. So, what’s the point of zoning if you can merely apply and get a variance? I mean how is the appraiser supposed to anticipate that???
I am not criticizing Hagar's article. I am simply pointing out that we don't always get such simplified analysis as he describes. It is far more nuanced. And, frankly, we are wading in deep weeds when we try to project what the "typical" buyer would do in the situation where the use and zoning differe, when we don't know what they will do. And few buyers want to show their hand before the deal is closed.
I am not disputing his example, but I have questions. His example is a $300,000 lot with a house worth $50,000. The savvy buyer buys anyway, tears down the perfectly serviceable house and builds a fourplex whose rents will far exceed the rents of that old SFR. That's the 'most profitable' use. Yes, that happens but how does the appraiser anticipate that will honestly happen? The buyer might still live there anyway, or remodel for a more modern look or even an addition. Who among us hasn’t encountered homes with a beaucoup of functional obsolescences, but happily lived in by the owners?
The rub, as Shakespeare might say, is how can we as appraisers anticipate the minds of a future buyer? What if the house is an interim utility until the buyer thinks it has 'ripened' into its HBU? What if merely holding waiting to flip in a better market? I mean anyone here savvy enough to buy almost anything in 2010-11 could have doubled, tripled or more their investment by doing nothing but waiting 10 years.
Comps tell us what similar property might bring but can we really be expected to anticipate what will be done post-closing unless the buyer says so? Next, is it not true that even if zoning is SFR, one could argue that tearing down a house of any age and replacing with a new structure would be a higher and better use of a site? In other words, the moment a property depreciates by one dollar, i.e- it is worth less than if the “ideal” (new) improvement would replace it. You might have to think on that one.
Next, zoning itself. I work some small towns with no zoning. I work some with only vague zoning – R is residential, C is commercial, I – industrial and not much else. But most will have R1 for SFR, R2 might be 2-4 units, or they might call it RM2 and apartments as RM3. In fact, sometimes the zoning classifications can be numerous. RE – executive estates over 2 acres; R1a- SFR on lots less than 5,000 SF; R1b- SFR with lots between 5,000 – 15,000 SF; R1c- lots between 15,000 SF and 2 acres. And, of course, lots of towns are now mandated to allow so many manufactured homes in the city and allowing (or requiring) cities to accommodate ADUs. And some towns have such a myriad of “zones” it finally became so overwhelming that they are revamping the zoning classifications. How does the appraiser anticipate that?
The map below is all residential. How many classifications do you see?

And “allowable” uses might say that a church or daycare can exist on R1b and R1c but not on RE lots or R1a lots. Or, worse, you can ask for variances and likely to get them. So, what’s the point of zoning if you can merely apply and get a variance? I mean how is the appraiser supposed to anticipate that???
I am not criticizing Hagar's article. I am simply pointing out that we don't always get such simplified analysis as he describes. It is far more nuanced. And, frankly, we are wading in deep weeds when we try to project what the "typical" buyer would do in the situation where the use and zoning differe, when we don't know what they will do. And few buyers want to show their hand before the deal is closed.
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