I have made an appraisal subject to an inspection of the foundation and any required repairs in the inspection report. If the inspection doesn't require any repairs and states the foundation is okay, does the lender need a 1004D? Thanks.
I think post 5 is a pretty good answer, but I cannot agree with all of it partially in nuances and partially in substance. I agree the lender does not need a 1004D. This is about shifting the liability onto your shoulders and off the lender and underwriter. Obviously, you must have observed something about the foundation that you did not like. Otherwise you'd not of used an EA with an inspection condition. However, you DID use an EA with an inspection condition as YOU are
not qualified to determine if what you observed was a detrimental condition representing a structural hazard. If this is not so, why else did you use an EA with an inspection condition? The answers to these questions now set us up for taking a hard look at that 1004D form.
I'll assume, as you didn't bother to tell us, that the lender is not interested in the top portion of the 1004D and is only seeking the bottom half "Certificate of Completion" to be filled out. With that, we need to read the Intended Use, Intended User statement, the question under that, and then most importantly the
Appraiser's Certification. Did you read them? If so, or if not, go back and read them again, slowly. Now, stop and consider that somebody that didn't give a bloody wit about YOUR liability attempted to design a multipurpose certificate of completion and did one terrible rotten job of it.
The form itself ONLY makes sense if you called for an actual repair that YOU are qualified to call for and qualified to determine if the final repair is satisfactory or not. Once any other type of action is called for, say an inspection that you are not qualified to perform, the 1004D certificate section not only no longer makes any sense, it is a misleading form report that causes you to take liability for an inspection that you are not qualified for in the first place. Think I am wrong? Ok, I can live with that. But ask yourself if YOU can live with
signing a certification that says
that YOU revisited the subject property and
visually did your own inspection that
confirmed that the conditions and requirements of the original appraisal have been satisfied.
While I appreciate Brother DeSaix suggesting a statement that says one relied on the professional inspection report of someone else, it doesn't stop the fact that the appraiser
signed a certification saying just the opposite. This is no different than a supervisory appraiser signing on the right taking 100% responsibility for the appraiser that signed on the left of an appraisal report. My opinion? You sign that certification and you just figuratively signed on the right of that third party inspection report. Others can think I am all wrong about this, but I'll just suspect very few, to none, of them has bothered showing the 1004D to an attorney for an opinion on it. The real question is, are you willing to live with your signature on a liability time bomb just to make some lenders staff happy? A staff that should be able to comprehend that having obtained the positive third party inspection report itself satisfied the appraisal condition and that no completion certificate is needed as nothing was changed? Think it over.