Could you consistently present this in context ( you have done when asked ) as to why loan performance is better - since the valuation of the property has zero to do with how the borrowers perform. When asked you stated, the reason, which most of us already know that waivers are granted to stronger borrowers with more income, better credit, more $ down - so of course the borrower will perform better, so it had nothing to do with the fact an appraisal was not used - but the implication is that appraisals somehow are the reasons for poorer performance when performance belongs to the borrower.
What is the reasons other products aside form waivers tie in to loans performing better? A loan does not perform, a borrower preforms so it must have something to do with the borrowers or amounts of $ of these loans or the loan products. .
Loan performance is back end, but the valuation of property collateral is the front end . Why is a front end valuation, used by client to determine whether to lend or not and then for how much $ , being judged on something it has no control over or responsibility for - borrower performance, months or years later?