Dublin ohio
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- Mar 20, 2008
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Not in the case of a buyoutThey both want to get the highest price possible
Not in the case of a buyoutThey both want to get the highest price possible
That was my thinking. If I offer $260 they have to decline.
A buyout between spouses would not be arm’s lengthNot in the case of a buyout
Usually one party makes it very difficult as they do not want to sell. They will make it hard to schedule an appointment, note every repai issue, etc. Normally divorce properties sell below market value for the above reasons. Or both parties were just ready to move on for a quick sale or financial reasons. Or one party won't sell because they think it's worth xxxx, and rejects all offers. Becomes stale and sells below mv.I regards to the divorce scenario wouldn’t both parties(divorcing couple) be acting in their own best interest regarding the sale price. They both want to get the highest price possible which is to me why it is an arm’s length sale. They may not want to sell but when it comes to the sale they are acting with their best interest in mind.
No it does not meet this criteria. I am not aware of any relationship. My confusion on this stems from a concise definition of what would qualify as arm’s length accepted across board rather than what does not. For example HUDs definition of arms length “Usually one party makes it very difficult as they do not want to sell. They will make it hard to schedule an appointment, note every repai issue, etc. Normally divorce properties sell below market value for the above reasons. Or both parties were just ready to move on for a quick sale or financial reasons. Or one party won't sell because they think it's worth xxxx, and rejects all offers. Becomes stale and sells below mv.
My point was are the buyers and sellers related or are business partners, etc. This is the main determining factor.
Back to topic....
From fannie
Non-arm's length transactions are purchase transactions in which there is a relationship or business affiliation between the seller and the buyer of the property.
Does your transaction meet the above?
Essentially Fannie does not care if the parties are acting in their own best interest so long as they are not related but HUD requires they are acting in their own best interest and are not related. So in my situation based upon the fannie definition of non arms length I guess it has to be written as arm’s length on this conventional loan. However if this were a HUD I would maintain non arms length. NC I thank you for your response and the professional dialogue.No it does not meet this criteria. I am not aware of any relationship. My confusion on this stems from a concise definition of what would qualify as arm’s length accepted across board rather than what does not. For example HUDs definition of arms length “
Arm’s Length Transaction
An Arm’s Length Transaction refers to a transaction between unrelated parties who are each acting in their own best interest.” So I suppose arms length is now relative to whether or not it’s a HUD loan or conventional?
So who determines if they are acting in their own "best interest"?An Arm’s Length Transaction refers to a transaction between unrelated parties who are each acting in their own best interest.
Good idea. Since it appears that these type of sales are becoming somewhat more common. Maybe they should add "restricted sale" to the mixMaybe a new or a different term can be/should be used/added to the UAD.
Didn't say it wasA buyout between spouses would not be arm’s length