Blue1
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 14, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
Lender says client has an appraisal done 1 month ago for a divorce. The client on that report is willing to re-assign the report to the new lender (client) That same new lender wants to use appraial, calls appraiser for "re-assignment" and appraiser refuses and tells lender they need a whole new appraisal.
Questions:
1) Why not re-assign the report, charge a re-type fee and be done with it? Why would an appraisal done for a divorce be different from one done for a lender?
2) Does the lender really need a "re-assigned" appraisal in the first place? Can't they just use the appraisal as is?
Questions:
1) Why not re-assign the report, charge a re-type fee and be done with it? Why would an appraisal done for a divorce be different from one done for a lender?
2) Does the lender really need a "re-assigned" appraisal in the first place? Can't they just use the appraisal as is?