Lee Lansford
Elite Member
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Illinois
OK--scenario. Lot 1 with home is valued at $100,000 (eastern KY here, not SoCal) Lot 2, adjacent, IF sold by itself, perhaps valued at $15,000.
The way I read it, Fannie is NOT asking the appraiser to value them both at $115,000, and report that. They are asking the appraiser to value the home, and what the typical market participant would value the vacant lot next door IF it came with lot 1--a package deal. Maybe most would value it simply as surplus land. Doubtful most would, in their minds, ascribe to it its full nominal market value of $15,000.
So lets say the value in place (to use their verbiage) for the vacant lot as determined by the appraiser is $7,000, and the total market value is then $107,000, with a clear description of how this was obtained. Where is the real issue in doing this?
So...when you do as you suggest, are you prepared to "X" the NO box to the question (paraphrasing) "Is the H&BU as improved the current use?"
You can't ignore H&BU and call the resulting value MV.