Lee Lansford
Elite Member
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Illinois
For those who understand the problem and want to make effort to see it corrected, express your concerns to Lyle_E_Radke@fanniemae.com
Jgrant, I read your responses to my post. I thought I made it very clear in them Please stop trying to read into them so as to come up with something I did not say.
One way to explain this is with and Illustration/drawing showing three scenarios. So I wlll work on that and post it as soon as i get done correctly to make my point(s)
There is no definite answer to A or B until the appraiser knows what he/she is appraising and what the scope of work is to deliver a credible report. Without knowing the particulars about Zoning, Land use, what size lots or parcels are common and typical for the area its all speculation. If the market area of example A & B is 1 acre minimal lot sizes then the highest and best use on "B" may be to combine both parcels into one deed and appraise it as a whole BUT if the properties were located in low cost area where sales prices of 1 and 2 acres were very similar then it may be advantages for the owner to keep them separate and use the adjacent 1 acre as a future negotiation tool in a sale or hold out until it makes sense to develop another home on the adjacent site and in that situation my H & B use analyses would be that "B" interim use is its H & B use. The truth is the entire thread is flawed because everyone got to focused on what Fannie Mae Guidelines will allow. Fannie-freddie-FHA-VA are not under USPAP and so its the appraisers business decision whether he/she wants to play in their Sand-Box. Scope of work and H & B use is solely the appraisers business decision. So lets see who do I want to face ? The USPAP police or the GSE'S the Federal Government or my State board when the GSE or FHA send there complaint in on me for violating there guidelines ?I'd like people , esp those challenging ,to answer this question with A or B: I will use one acre lot size for simplicity/assume 1 acre min zoning. This question pertains to the Fannie example >
Subject of appraisal assignment is to value a property consisting of a house on one acre along with the adjacent vacant one acre lot, which is determined to be excess land.
Is the subject property described above ;n
A) A house on a 2 acre lot? or B) a house on an acre lot along with adjacent vacant lot. ?
well DOH, I would not just do a value in use and throw it on the grid. I would make a HBU analysis and speak of value in use as well for the parcel only. See post 137 for dictionary of real estate which says value and use and Market value can be the same.I have spoke with 3 chief appraisers regarding this and not a single one has indicated that, "sure you can do value in use, just throw it in the grid". It's misleading and moreover local lenders want 30% down on land, to think that Fannie is willing to write loans with 95% LTV on vacant land is absurd which is what happens when the appraiser lumps two parcels into (1) 1004. We need to remember that Fannie does not dictate appraiser theory or law, USPAP does and engaging in "value in use" is a direct departure from HBU analysis. Keep filling in those forms, the lenders love you.