- Joined
- Jan 15, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
A large question that will not always result in the same answer from different appraisers...as strange as that may seem.
USPAP is in fact the culprit in this matter, which requires an appraiser to "analyze" all current agreements of sale, for reasons not entirely explained within the USPAP document (or at least explained in a manner that actually makes a lick of sense). So if you don't like the fact USPAP is requiring lenders to send you purchase contracts you are not alone and, you would need to take that up with the Appraisal Foundation, the entity that writes USPAP. Good luck with that.
I personally think the requirement is beyond ridiculous, and is the single most damaging requirement to both the profession and the interest of the public. One of the many obstacles to change is the fact that so many appraisers have been working this way for so long, that it would require appraisers to stand up and admit their little world is not as perfect as it could/should be, and pride is so much more powerful than people give it credit for.
This post is what I love about people who are new to something...a fresh perspective...an ability to observe the obvious that old curmudgeons have forgone.
You're zooming yourself if you think that the kids are asking a new question that nobody ever considered before. This requirement is in place *despite* the known pitfalls and because the positives are perceived to outweigh the negatives. It was an informed decision, not an arbitrary one.
Have you ever seen what (often) happens when an appraiser doesn't disclose and analyze the recent sales and listing history? Nothing good.