J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
That still does not meet the tests made under the fannie mae "market value" definition. And as Diana Orlick reported only this week, on average, the REO sells for 35% LESS than market value and that applies in every region of the country although in some regions it was as low as 15%....it is still REO = BELO MV
Two problems at work...how do we not know that the REO's are selling at MV and the non REO's are selling 35% above MV? Just because news reporters report something, they are reporting it from their view point. That aside , which is a question each market has to answer, these huge generalizations of value differences for various regions of the country are much more narrow when we focus on the subject and what sales are competitive to the subject.
For example, we might be appraising a 2000 sf house built in 1990 in good condition, and most of the sales are non REO so it is no problem, even though half a mile away, there are REO's built in 1950 in poor condition. It doesn't matter if they are selling for 35% less, we are not going to use them as comps. If our subject is built in 1950 and in poor condition we will use them as comps. If the comps for our 1950 subject are a mix of REO and non REO, chances are the price diff between them is much narrower then the huge regional 35% differences he newscasters reoport, which comes from lumping all kinds of disparate property types, with the only thing they have in common being REO's, vs a bunch of othe disparate property types that are non REO's.